Wednesday 27 February 2019

When Christians get cornered


“He who believes in me, as the scripture has said, ‘Out of his heart shall flow rivers of living water.'” (John 7:38)


An open challenge to Christians and Jews from any part of the world to show where such saying can be found in the modern day Tanack?

Thus, don’t you dare say where is the name of Prophet Muhammed Pbuh in the bible as found in the Quran.  You guys can't even show us a oneline sentence which was uttered by your Jesus who claimed it was mentioned in the very scripture’s you guys say was persevered and not corrupted, so where is it?

Second point

He said to them, "This is what I told you while I was still with you: Everything must be fulfilled that is written about me in the Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms." Then he opened their minds to understand the Scriptures, And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: (Luke 24:44-46)


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Please show us from the "Law of Moses" where this fulfilment is mentioned and where it says, "Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day". Just provide us with the chapter and verse from the Torah. we'll get to the other scriptures later, for now let's stick to the "Law of Moses" and see how truthful your man-god really was.

please provide us with clear-cut; explicit verse, not any text where you have to decipher it. this shouldn't be difficult since Jesus "opened the minds" of his followers to understand the OT scriptures, the question is which ones?

Then he opened their minds so they could understand the Scriptures. (Luke 24:45)

you Christians claim the "holy ghost" is guiding you and helps you understand scriptures, so then this would be a piece of cake for you to show us, right?


Third point

Women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the law says. (1 Corinthians 14:34)


Question: what law says women should remain silent in churches? In what book of the Pentateuch out of the 613 laws do we find this law? Do you see where we are getting at. Christians need to stop embarrassing themselves by asking us where the name of Prophet Muhammed Pbuh is found in the Bible when they can't even show us the saying uttered by Jesus within the scriptures.

Now coming to the verse from the Quran mentioning Prophet Muhammed Pbuh.

Those who follow the Messenger, the unlettered prophet, whom they find written in what they have of the Torah and the Gospel, who enjoins upon them what is right and forbids them what is wrong and makes lawful for them the good things and prohibits for them the evil and relieves them of their burden and the shackles which were upon them. So they who have believed in him, honored him, supported him and followed the light which was sent down with him - it is those who will be the successful. (Surah 7:157)

Notice how Christians try to add their own twist to the text. What they did to their scriptures, Christians are trying to do it on ours, but instead they fail. The verse says "Those who follow the apostle, the unlettered Prophet, whom they find mentioned in their own (scriptures)"

"whom they find written"  the Arabic word used is (maktūban written). The verse does not say you will find his "name" in the bible, rather written about him, i.e. description. Muslims throughout time have given multiple descriptions of Prophet Muhammed Pbuh from the Bible, which Christians reject. Again, Christians were chasing something which wasn't even mentioned, this shows how deluded these Christians are.

So, before Christians jump on Muslims asking us to show the "name" of Prophet Muhammed Pbuh in the Bible, maybe they should first look for the saying of the Jesus which apparently was quoted from the Torah.

See if you guys can hack that!

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If you’re looking for the name of Prophet Muhammed Pbuh in your scripture then you taking the wrong route. The Quran does not say you will find his name (إسمه ismuhu), rather the Quran says in Surah 7:157 you will find his written description (مَكْتُوبًا maktuban), be consistent.





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Scripture where is this saying found?


And after that he gave to them judges about the space of four hundred and fifty years, until Samuel the prophet. (Acts 13:20)
Wrong according to  1 kings 6:1
In the four hundred and eightieth year after the Israelites came out of Egypt, in the fourth year of Solomon's reign over Israel, in the month of Ziv, the second month, he began to build the temple of the LORD. (1 kings 6:1 )

Bible commentators agreeing Paul made a mistake
He gave unto them judges - Men who were raised up in an extraordinary manner to administer the affairs of the nation, to defend it from enemies, etc. See Judges 2:16.
About the space of four hundred and fifty years - This is a most difficult passage, and has exercised all the ingenuity of chronologists. The ancient versions agree with the present Greek text. The difficulty has been to reconcile it with what is said in 1 Kings 6:1, "And it came to pass in the four hundred and eightieth year after the children of Israel were come out of the land of Egypt, in the fourth year of Solomon's reign over Israel ...he began to build the house of the Lord." Now if to the 40 years that the children of Israel were in the wilderness there be added the 450 said in Acts to have been passed under the administration of the judges, and about 17 years of the time of Joshua, 40 years for Samuel and the reign of Saul together, and 40 years for the reign of David, and three years of Solomon before he began to build the temple, the sum will be 590 years, a period greater by 110 years than that mentioned in 1 Kings 6:1. Various ways have been proposed to meet the difficulty.

(20) After that he gave unto them judges . . .—The statement in the text, assigning 450 years to the period of the judges, and apparently reckoning that period from the distribution of the conquered territory, is at variance with that in 1Kings 6:1, which gives 480 years as the period intervening between the Exodus and the building of the temple. The better MSS., however, give a different reading—“He gave their land to them as an inheritance, about 450 years, and after these things he gave unto them judges,” the 450 years in this case being referred to the interval between the choice of “our fathers,” which may be reckoned from the birth of Isaac (B.C. 1897 according to the received chronology) to the distribution of the conquered country in B.C. 1444. So far as any great discrepancy is concerned, this is a sufficient explanation, but what has been said before as to the general tendency in a discourse of this kind to rest in round numbers, has also to be remembered. (See Note on Acts 7:6.) Josephus (Ant. viii. 3, § 1) gives 592 years from the Exodus to the building of Solomon’s Temple. Of this period sixty-five years were occupied by the wanderings in the wilderness and the conquest under Joshua, eighty-four by the reigns of Saul and David and the first four years of Solomon, leaving 443 years for the period of the Judges. This agrees, it will be seen, sufficiently with the Received text in this passage, but leaves the discrepancy with 1Kings 6:1 unexplained. There would of course, be nothing strange in St. Paul’s following the same traditional chronology as Josephus, even where it differed from that of the present Hebrew text of the Old Testament.




Then the people asked for a king, and he gave them Saul son of Kish, of the tribe of Benjamin, who ruled forty years (Acts 13:21)

Gross error, according to the Hebrew Bible Tanack, 1 Samuel 13:1 Saul rules for two years. The NIV says 42 years. Kjv also agrees with the Hebrew Bible saying 2 years.



And when He had removed him, He raised up for them David as king, to whom also He gave testimony and said, ‘I have found David the son of Jesse, a man after My own heart, who will do all My will.’ (Acts 13:22)


Where is this saying found in the Tanack, "I have found David the son of Jesse, a man after My own heart, who will do all My will."

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Guys where is this  found in the Old Testament?


Or haven't you read in the Law that the priests on Sabbath duty in the temple desecrate the Sabbath and yet are innocent? (Matthew 12:5)

Sunday 24 February 2019

The Chosen One


Why don’t Christians and Jews except Prophet Muhammed Pbuh as the Messenger of God, when their very Bible confirms the Prophethood of Prophet Muhammed Pbuh as a Chosen Messenger of God Almighty. The earliest and most ancient written biblical text confirms this.

The DSS fragments found in the Qumran caves 1QIsaa reveal the distortion found in the Masoretic text which was written during the 10th century, the Aleppo Codex.

Now let's show the Christians and Jews where Prophet Muhammed Pbuh is mentioned in their scriptures are the chosen Messenger of God

"Behold my servant, whom I uphold, my chosen one in whom I delight; I will put my Spirit on him, and he will bring justice to the nations. (Isaiah 42:1)

אֶתְמָךְ־ Etmc in Hebrew is used for servant. Interestingly the DSS fragments which were found in the Qumran caves 1QIsaa don’t use the word אֶתְמָךְ־ Etmc, rather it says Ahmd אחמד.

The original reading should read

Behold my servant, (Ahmd אחמד) Ahmed, my chosen, in whom my soul delights; I have put my Spirit upon him; he will bring forth justice to the nations. (Isaiah 42:1)

The is undeniable proof from the own ancient texts, which were hidden for centuries in jar proving the authenticity of Prophet Muhammed Pbuh. The Messenger of God who identity was hidden by the Masoretic text. Christians and Jews must submit and accept Prophet Muhammed Pbuh as the Chosen Messenger of God as mentioned in the earliest texts of Isaiah. Christians and Jews must also accept this unforgivable distortion by the scribes purely out of hatred for an Arab Prophet.

If only our Christian and Jewish friends study the DSS of Isaiah with an open mind, then they'll come to accept the truth and final Messenger Prophet Muhammed Pbuh the Chosen One of God.


What did King Jehoshaphat the son of Asa say to his congregation before the their battle with Moabites, Ammonites and Ammonim?

…Hear me, O Judah and inhabitants of Jerusalem: Believe in the LORD your God, and you will be upheld; believe in His Prophets, and you will succeed." (2 Chronicles 20:20)



 "Believe in the LORD your God, and you will be upheld; believe in His Prophets, and you will succeed." thus, believing in God and his Prophets is the will make you establish and succeed. If he cross reference this with Isaiah 42:1 "Behold my servant, (Ahmd אחמד) Ahmed, my chosen, in whom my soul delights; I have put my Spirit upon him; he will bring forth justice to the nations." we can conclude, both Christians and Jews must believe in Prophet Muhammed Pbuh to succeed.




Thursday 21 February 2019

The Lying God of the Bible


I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob as El-Shaddai--'God Almighty'--but I did not reveal my name, Yahweh, to them. (Exodus 6:3)


Above we read God of the Bible speaking to Moses and informing him, how none of the previous Prophets of God knew his real name, that is "Yahweh". Now this is a big claim made by God himself to one of his dear Prophet Moses.  The question is could this claim really be verified? Did the God of the Bible really speak the truth with Moses, or did he just lead him on? Let's find out.

Now the best way to confirm if the statement made by the God of the Bible is true, we’ll go by the sequence order. God named three Prophets by name explicitly Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Let's put the words of the God of the Bible to the test and see if he spoke the truth by looking for any instances during the lives of those three Prophets if they ever uttered or knew the name "Yahweh".

Again, we'll go in sequence just like Yahweh used, first Abraham

Then the LORD told him (Abram), “I am the LORD (Yahweh יֱהוִ֔ה) who brought you out of Ur of the Chaldeans to give you this land as your possession.” But Abram replied, “Lord GOD (Yahweh יֱהוִ֔ה), how can I know that I will possess it?” (Genesis 15:7-8)


Pause! Let's do a cross reference…

"I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob as El-Shaddai--'God Almighty'--but I did not reveal my name, Yahweh, to them." (Exodus 6:3)

God said to Moses He never revealed his name Yahweh to Abraham the first Prophets in his statement. However, Genesis 15:7-8 reveals that the God of the Bible did reveal his name "Yahweh" to Abraham and Abraham also called him Yahweh in return?

"Then the LORD told him (Abram), “I am the LORD (Yahweh יֱהוִ֔ה)" verse 7

"But Abram replied, “Lord GOD (Yahweh יֱהוִ֔ה)" verse 8

Imagine the same God tells us he made Abraham his friend and a covenant with him. This same God lied about his friend and Prophet. Let's move on to the next Prophet mentioned by God, Isaac. Again, we are going by sequence and mentioned in Exodus 6:3.


Abandoning that one, Isaac moved on and dug another well. This time there was no dispute over it, so Isaac named the place Rehoboth (which means "open space"), for he said, "At last the LORD (Yahweh יֱהוִ֔ה) has created enough space for us to prosper in this land." (Genesis 26:22)

Interestingly, Isaac after digging up a new well said, "the LORD (Yahweh יֱהוִ֔ה) has created enough space for us to prosper in this land." how did he know the name of God if "Yahweh" never revealed it to him?

Isaac built an altar there and called on the name of the LORD. There he pitched his tent, and there his servants dug a well. (Genesis 26:25)

Here Isaac called on the "NAME OF THE LORD " and what is the name of the Lord? Exodus 3:14 & 6:3 ("but I did not reveal my name, Yahweh  יֱהוִ֔ה, to them"). Thus, Isaac knew the name of God.  Again, this shows the God of the Bible lying to his Prophet and agent Moses. Let's move on to the third Prophet Jacob the son of Isaac and grandson of Abraham.

And Jacob had a dream about a ladder that rested on the earth with its top reaching up to heaven, and God’s angels were going up and down the ladder. There above it stood the LORD, and he said: "I am the LORD (Yahweh יֱהוִ֔ה), the God of your father Abraham and the God of Isaac. (Genesis 28:12-13)

Once again, the God of the Bible confirmed and revealed his real name (Yahweh יֱהוִ֔ה) to Jacob by dream.  It's absurd to claim God didn't tell Jacob his real name Yahweh, rather Jacob dreamt it. One can refute this claim by asking how did Jacob know of the name of God through a dream if it wasn't revealed by God himself? What are the chances of Jacob randomly having a dream, hearing God reveal his name? would Satan reveal the name of God to Jacob in a dream? Again, this claim is baseless and absurd.  

The fact the God of the Bible revealed his name to all three Prophets explicitly but lied to Moses says something. The question remains, was not Moses aware that Yahweh lied to him, since he was the author of the Torah? Why didn't Moses question God of the Bible after noticing he lied to him? It's not lied Moses never rebuked Yahweh, according to Exodus 32:12-14, Moses made Yahweh repent why then didn't he challenge this God by bringing up what he said?

This was an issue for classical rabbis, many tried reconciling the problem by stating Moses added his own interpretation by inserting the name Yahweh. Pay attention what what Ibn Ezra a Jewish Scholar said:

In Parshat Vaera (Exodus 6:3) G-d says to Moshe, "I appeared to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob as E-l Sh-ddai but by my name Ad-nay I did not make myself known to them." The commentators ask that we do, in fact, find G-d called Ad-nay while speaking to the forefathers (eg. Gen. 15:7, 28:13). The verse in our parsha seems to be incorrect. Ibn Ezra quotes a R. Yeshuah (evidently a Karaite) who suggested that the references to Ad-nay in Genesis were added in by Moshe but were not really said at the time of the occurence. To this, Ibn Ezra writes "R. Yeshuah did not speak correctly because how could Moshe write this if G-d did not say it..." Rather, Ibn Ezra suggests that the forefathers knew G-d with the name Ad-nay as a name but not as an attribute. Other commentators offer different interpretations. But Ibn Ezra explicitly disagrees with the suggestion that Moshe added on his own to the Torah.


Thus, according to Ibn Ezra's commentary we can conclude there was no addition by Moses on those passages and Yahweh did reveal his real name to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. One can't be judged for calling the God of the Bible "Yahweh" an open liar and deceiver who tricked Moses into believing something which wasn't true.

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If the name Yahweh was not known to anyone other than Moses (Exodus 6.3), how did Eve know his name?

what's interesting about Eve is, God spoke to her forbidding her not to eat from the tree of knowledge. There is no mention of God disclosing his "name" to Adam or Eve? Yet Genesis 4 Eve explicitly uses the name "Yahweh" when addressing him?

וְהָ֣אָדָ֔ם יָדַ֖ע אֶת־חַוָּ֣ה אִשְׁתּ֑וֹ וַתַּ֙הַר֙ וַתֵּ֣לֶד אֶת־קַ֔יִן וַתֹּ֕אמֶר קָנִ֥יתִי אִ֖ישׁ אֶת־יְהוָֽה׃
Now the man knew his wife Eve, and she conceived and bore Cain, saying, “I have gained a male child with the help of the LORD.”

The Hebrew text reads ְהוָֽה (Yahweh) which is translated as Lord. If Yahweh was not known to anyone, how did Eve know? And why didn’t Moses challenge Yahweh when he was being inspired to write Genesis? Genesis would have been written after Moses was spoken to in mount Sinai and crossed over Egypt with the Israelites. Exodus 6:3 says the name Yahweh was not known, if that’s the case why didn't Moses say, but Genesis says Eve knew your name? after all Moes wrote Genesis according to the Jews?

Either Moses didn't write Genesis and was unaware of this story, or Moses did write it but didn't read what he wrote?

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According Talmud Jacob told Rachel he was a "Deceiver" like her father. This is Jacob the son of Isaac whom God made a special covenant with according to Christians
Jacob told Rachel that he was her father’s kinsman, that he was Rebekah’s son; and she ran and told her father. (Genesis 29:12)

What was Rachel's discretion? As it is written (Genesis 29:12) "Jacob told Rachel that he was the brother of her father." Now, was he the brother of her father? Was he not the son of her father's sister? Rather, he said to her, "will you marry me"? She said to him, "yes, but my father is a deceiver, and you will not be able to outwit him." He said to her, "I am his brother as a deceiver." She said to him, "is it permitted to the righteous to walk in the way of deceit?" He said to her, "yes, [as it is written] (II Samuel 22:27) 'With the pure you act purely, and with the perverted you deal torturously.'" (Talmud Megillah 13b)

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Yahweh is not a name it's a statement a pronouncement (a formal or authoritative announcement or declaration.)

The name "Yahweh" is not mentioned anywhere in the entire New Testament. if this name was so unique why didn't Jesus his disciples or Paul make mention of such an incredible name?

saying that, Yahweh is not a name it means "i shall be that i shall be", does that sound like a name to you?

So the question remains to be answered, what is the name of the God of the Bible?

 

 

Firstly, What does yahweh mean,? Secondly, how is it pronounced without any vowels? finally where in the 27 alleged books of the NT is the "name" yahweh uttered by your false messiah/man-god of his disciples or anyone?

 

1) what does yahweh mean

2) how is it pronounced

3) where is this "name" found in the NT

 

let's see how much you know regarding this "supposed name". feel free you're seek help from your hs, not that it's going to be any help lol

 

let's add another to the point. Did Abraham, Isaac and Ismael know the "name" yahweh? Hint-hint Exodus 6:3. by which name we're they calling you're god? you're bible is a mess

 


Therefore I will send you into exile beyond Damascus,” says the Lord, whose name is God Almighty. (Amos 5:27)


And the LORD commissioned Joshua the son of Nun and said, “Be strong and courageous, for you shall bring the people of Israel into the land that I swore to give them. I will be with you.” (Deuteronomy 31:23) Same Aheye is used when speaking to Joshua





Wednesday 20 February 2019

Did the Scribes change the text of the Bible?


Bible corruption

The Mechilta (Beshalach, Shirah ch. 6 on Exodus 15:7) lists eleven places in which the Biblical text used a euphemism (kinah hakatuv). For example, it says in Zechariah (2:12) "Whoever touches you, touches the apple of his eye." It should have said "touches the apple of My [i.e. G-d's] eye." However, out of respect for G-d, the text used a euphemism instead. There is no reason to believe that someone later changed the text of the Bible. Rather, the original text itself was written with a euphemism.
In Shemot Rabbah (13:1) we find that R' Yehoshua ben Levi quoted this same example from Zechariah but, rather than calling it a euphemism, he called it a "correction of the Scribes" (tikkun Sofrim). Similarly, in Bereshit Rabbah (49:7) we find his student, R' Shimon, giving the same explanation to the verse (Genesis 18:22), "And Abraham was still standing before G-d." R' Shimon says that really G-d was waiting for Abraham but, out of respect for G-d, there was a "correction of the Scribes." This explanation of R' Shimon is quoted by Rashi on that verse.
The question that remains is whether tikkun Sofrim means that scribes actually changed the wording of the Bible or is it really the same as a text using a euphemism (kinah hakatuv) but that the Scribes discovered and explained this euphemism? In other words, the Scribes fixed the understanding of the verse. Do R' Yehoshua ben Levi and R' Shimon agree or disagree with the Mechilta?
There is no reason to assume that they disagree. Indeed, the Rashba (quoted by R' Eliyahu Mizrachi on Genesis 18:22) explains that they do not disagree and that the change the Scribes made was to the understanding of the text. That is how they fixed the verse. Maharal (Gur Aryeh, there) agrees. R' Yosef Albo writes a little differently in his Sefer HaIkkarim (3:22):
The meaning is not that any person changed anything in the Torah, G-d forbid, because no one would forge a book and then say "I forged this" or "I changed this." How could they say that the Scribes changed it? Rather, the meaning is that... [the Torah spoke] like a scribe who changes his words out of respect for G-d."
While some editions of Rashi (on Genesis 18:22) have him actually saying that the rabbis changed the text, manuscripts do not bear out this reading. It must have been added by a copyist who made a mistake. See the Berliner and Mossad HaRav Kook editions of Rashi and the Yefeh Toar on Bereshit Rabbah 49:7. Indeed, had earlier scholars known this they would not have been so confused on this issue. For example, see R' Avraham Bucrat's Sefer Zikaron on Rashi where he argues that Rashi believes that tikkun Sofrim means the same as kinah hakatuv but then stumbles over Rashi's language. However, we have found proof that Rashi understand tikkun Sofrim like the Rashba that it means that the Scribes fixed the meaning of the text. On Job (32:3) Rashi writes, "This is one of the verses in which the Scribes fixed the language of the text. It should have read, 'And they condemned G-d in their silence' but the text used a euphemism (kinah hakatuv)." Here we see clearly Rashi saying both that the text used a euphemism and that the Scribes fixed the language. Obviously, the Scribes fixed the language by explaining the text's true meaning without the euphemism. See also Rashi's commentary to Numbers 11:15. Ibn Ezra, at the end of his introduction to his commentary on the Torah, rejects the entire concept of tikkun Sofrim. See also his commentary to Numbers 11:15 and 12:12.
However, it should be noted that the Tanchuma (Beshalach 16) as we have it says that the Scribes actually changed the text of the Bible. No less than R' Azariah de Rossi, who was called a heretic by the Maharal and whose books were banned, testified that two manuscripts of Tanchuma in his possession did not have this passage (Me'or Einayim ch. 19). Only one rishon, the Aruch (s.v. Kabed, 1) quotes this tradition of the Tanchuma. While the Aruch believed that the Scribes did, on limited occasions, change a letter in the Torah - with the exception of Genesis 18:22, every case was the change of one letter - the overwhelming majority, as we have seen, did not believe this. The manuscript evidence has proven that the Aruch was himself, ironically, relying on a faulty text of the Tanchuma. (See also Responsa Radbaz no. 1020, vol. 3 no. 594 who poses many difficult questions to the Aruch).

Regarding words that are written one way but are read another way (kri uktiv) etc., Radak in his introduction to Joshua claims that these were due to different texts of the Bible. For this, he was sharply criticized by R' Yitzchak Abarbanel in his introduction to Jeremiah. Abarbanel write, "A scroll which has one letter missing is invalid. How much more so that many letters would be missing." Therefore, Abarbanel suggests that the reading (kri) was added by Ezra as an explanation to the writing (ktiv). However, this too was criticized by later scholars.
The simple and most obvious explanation for kri and ktiv is that offered by the Maharal (Tiferet Yisrael ch. 66) and Radbaz (Responsum no. 1020, vol. 3 no. 594). The prophets who wrote their books included both kri and ktiv in them. Since, as some suggest, these books were revealed to Moshe at Sinai and then later to the prophets to say and write down, the kri and ktiv originate at Sinai. What this means is that the books were originally written with the kri and ktiv. In addition to this, Malbim in his introduction to Jeremiah boldly claims that the ktiv represents the simple meaning - the pshat - and the kri represents the exegetical meaning - the drash. Malbim follows through with this in his commentary and demonstrates this difference between pshat and drash. One who truly wishes to understand the Bible would do well to study it with the commentary of Malbim.

On the Authorship of the Torah (who wrote the Torah)

There is no document more central to the Jewish faith than the Torah. Throughout the Bible, the Pentateuch is called the Torah of Moshe (Deut 33:4; Joshua 8:31,32;23:6; 2 Kings 14:6; 23:25; Malachi 3:22; Nechemiah 8:1; 1 Chronicles 34:14) but in no place does it describe how it was written by him. What we will attempt to do is evaluate the evidence and present a view consistent with rabbinic teachings.

The Gemara in Gittin 60a records a dispute regarding the writing of the Torah:

R' Yochanan said in the name of R' Bena'ah, "The Torah was given scroll by scroll." R' Shimon ben Lakish (Reish Lakish) said, "The Torah was given sealed."

According to R' Yochanan, the Torah was written section by section and, according to Reish Lakish, the Torah was written at one time, at the end of the forty years in the desert, as Rashi explains.
Who wrote it? The Gemara in Menachot 30a brings the following Baraita:

(Deut. 34:5) "So Moshe, servant of G-d, died there' ( Is it possible that Moshe was alive and wrote "So Moshe died"? Rather, until here Moshe wrote, from here on Yehoshua bin Nun wrote ( these are the words of R' Yehudah, and some say R' Nechemiah. R' Shimon said to him, "Is it possible that a Torah scroll was missing one word and its says (Deut. 31:26) "Take this Torah scroll and place it..."? Rather, until here G-d said and Moshe wrote and said, from here on G-d said and Moshe wrote in tears (or in confusion).
So we see that Moshe wrote the entire Torah, with the possible exception of the last eight verses, after hearing from G-d exactly what to write. According to R' Yochanan, this process took place over a long period of time and according to Reish Lakish it took place at the end of Moshe's life. The Ramban, in his introduction to his commentary on the Torah, says that according to R' Yochanan the process was as follows. When Moshe descended from Mt. Sinai he wrote from the beginning of the Torah until the end of the passages about the Mishkan, i.e. the books of Genesis and Exodus. He wrote the rest of the Torah at the end of the forty years, as evidenced by Deut. 31:26. According to Reish Lakish, the entire Torah was written at that late time.

Scrolls of the Forefathers

However, the process was actually more complicated than this suggests. We find the following in Shemot Rabbah 5:22: "And Moshe said before the Holy One, blessed be He, (Exodus 5:22) 'Why have You done evil to this people...' I opened the book of Genesis and read it and saw the acts of the generation of the flood..." As R' Zev Wolf Einhorn points out in his Perush Maharzu, it seems like Moshe had some sort of book of Genesis well before he descended from Mt. Sinai. Similarly, we find in Yalkut Shimoni on Chukat (247) Moshe informing Aharon of his impending death by reading from the book of Genesis. According to Reish Lakish, that the Torah was written at the end of the forty years, how could Moshe have already had a book of Genesis? The Talmud Yerushalmi in Megillah 3:4 tells us that Moshe instituted that the Torah be read on Shabbat, holidays, Mondays, and Thursdays and in Talmud Bavli, Bava Kamma 82a, it seems like that was done during the stay in the desert. Yet, according to Reish Lakish, there was not yet a written Torah to be read.

The answer is simply that our forefathers Avraham, Yitzchak, and Ya'akov, and even those who preceded them like Adam and Noach, wrote down personal histories and theological works that were kept by their descendants. As prophets, their writings were sacred and treated like holy books. They were studied by their children and handed down from generation to generation. Rashi on Gittin 60a sv. katuv says that first the scroll of Creation was written, then the scroll of Noach, and then the scroll of Avraham. Unlike the Ramban above, that the entire book of Genesis was written at one time, Rashi seems to say that it was written at different times, scroll by scroll. Or, perhaps Rashi is not talking about the book of Genesis at all. Rather, he is telling us that all of these people wrote their own scrolls. Adam wrote a book about his life and what happened during his lifetime. He was a prophet and, naturally, this was an inspired book. G-d directed what Adam wrote. Similarly, Noach and Avraham wrote books about their lives, their thoughts, and the important events they witnessed (see all this in Torah Shelemah vol. 19 pp. 345-346). This should not be surprising at all. Indeed, we find that many other prophets, such as Shmuel and Gad, kept records of their lives and the events of their times (see 1 Chronicles 29:29 and 2 Chronicles 9:29). As we shall see, even Moshe kept such records. The scrolls of the forefathers, the pre-Torah prophets, are mentioned by the Rambam in Hilchot Melachim 1:3. Radak also mentions them in his commentary to Genesis 5:4 and 11:1. See also Meiri's Seder Hakabbalah p. 23.

Throughout the stay in Egypt and the desert, the scrolls of the forefathers were treated as sacred books and studied. These books, which were written under prophetic inspiration, form the basis of the book of Genesis. Granted, they were highly edited so that the book would not be too long. Also, phrases and even verses were added to the texts that perhaps even these prophets could not have written. For example, Ramban explains (Genesis 8:21) "G-d said in His heart" as meaning that this was only revealed to Moshe at the time of the writing of the Torah. See also Ralbag there and Moreh Nevuchim 1:29. Another case is Genesis 32:33, "Therefore the Children of Israel are not to eat the gid hanasheh." According to the Mishna and Gemara in Chullin 101b, as explained by Rashi, this verse was a later insertion by Moshe. See the Radak's commentary to this verse. It is possible that Ibn Ezra, in his "secrecy", believed that many more verses fall into this category and were inserted into pre-existing narrative by G-d to Moshe. Most importantly, G-d had to edit the scrolls in order to perfect the exact wording and phrasing of the Torah so that many meanings can be found in it. While a good writer can insert two or three layers of meaning into a text, only a divine Author can insert dozens of meanings. Despite all this editing, the inspired scrolls of the patriarchs form the basis of the book of Genesis. That is why the midrash says that Moshe had a "book of Genesis". He had a collection of scrolls that told the story of Genesis and served as the basis for what we now call the book of Genesis. These were also what were publicly read on Shabbat, holidays, Mondays, and Thursdays, much like we currently read from the Prophets as a Haftarah. Only after the Torah was written and the scrolls of Genesis divinely summarized and combined with other well-known scrolls to form the Torah did the Pentateuch replace the scrolls for the weekly readings. This can also explain what we find in Bamidbar Rabbah that the tribes had traditions from Ya'akov about what would happen to them. These traditions could have come from written testaments of either Ya'akov or his sons. Indeed, these scrolls could have been the sources of what eventually, after translation and some distortions, became part of the Apocrypha (see Torah Shelemah on Genesis ch. 50 n. 104).

Scrolls of Moshe

These types of scrolls were not only written by the patriarchs. It says in Exodus 24:4,7: "Moshe wrote all the words of G-d... He took the Book of the Covenant (Sefer HaBrit) and read it in earshot of the people." The Rashba on Gittin 60a quotes R' Avraham Av Bet Din, the author of Sefer HaEshkol, as asking how R' Yishmael, who believed that the entire Torah was written at the end of the forty years in the desert, understood these verses. The Rashba answers, "The passages that were needed at that time were written down so people could see and learn from them." In other words, Moshe wrote scrolls containing halachic information that people studied in the desert. Similarly, R' Ya'akov Gesundheit in his Tiferet Ya'akov on Gittin, writes, "The meaning here is that the Torah was given to the Jews with the sanctity of a Torah scroll only in its complete form at the end when it was written and given to them. Then it had the sanctity of a Torah scroll. Anything written before that time was only for memory purposes."

Similarly, the Mechilta of R' Shimon bar Yochai and the Midrash HaGadol on Exodus 19:6 write that on the fifth day of preparation for the giving of the Torah, Moshe wrote down things like he was writing a history book. Also, the Gemara in Bava Batra 14b says that Moshe wrote the Book of Bilam which the Ritva explains is a non-biblical book that has been lost.

So far, we have seen the talmudic and midrashic evidence that the forefathers, including Moshe, wrote books other than the Torah that were maintained and studied. However, there is also much internal evidence that there were other books written. Consider the following verses:
  • (Exodus 17:14) G-d said to Moshe, "Write this as a remembrance in the book and recite it in the ears of Yehoshua, that I shall surely erase the memory of Amalek from under the heavens."
  • (Exodus 24:7) He took the Book of the Covenant and read it in earshot of the people, and they said, "Everything that G-d has said, we will do and we will obey."
  • (Numbers 11:26) Two men remained behind in the camp, the name of one was Eldad and the name of the second was Medad, and the spirit rested upon them; they had been among the recorded (written) ones, but they had not gone out to the Tent, and they prophesied in the camp.
  • (Numbers 21:14) Therefore it is said in the Book of the Wars of the Lord, "Vaheb in the Safah and the rivers of Arnon."
  • (Numbers 33:2) Moshe wrote their goings forth according to their journeys at the bidding of G-d, and these were their journeys according to their goings forth.
Ibn Ezra on Numbers 21:14 says that the Book of the Wars of the Lord "was a book in itself and in it were written the wars of the Lord on behalf of those who fear Him. It probably was from the times of Avraham for many books were lost and are no longer extant, like the words of Natan, Ido, the chronicles of the kings of Israel, the songs of Shlomo, and his proverbs." R' Sa'adia Gaon, Ramban, and Chizkuni explain likewise. On Exodus 17:14, Ibn Ezra suggests that the book mentioned there is the Book of the Wars of the Lord. R' Sa'adia Gaon, as explained by R' Yosef Kaffih in his footnote, suggests that it was another independent scroll.

Another piece of evidence is Genesis 5:1 "This is the book of the descendants of Adam." See Bereshit Rabbah 25:1-4 where this is taken to be a literal book. See Torah Shelemah vol. 1 n. 2, 6. It is possible that this is a section from a book that was written by one of Adam's descendants, perhaps Noach who is the last person in the list and was a known prophet, that G-d chose to include in the Torah. The fact that G-d retained in the text the word "book" is certainly significant and has deservedly received attention. However, it also serves as a clue to the development of the text.

What we have seen is that throughout history our prophets and wise men have written books on their lives, thoughts, and the events of their times. These books were studied and helped for our national identity. Indeed, it is certain that G-d guided the hands of our prophets to write what He wanted so that these books could be easily incorporated into the Torah. However, and this is crucial, the actual Torah was dictated word for word by G-d to Moshe. The other books have been more-or-less lost over time but remain in the form of midrashim.

Given all this, we can now better understand how the book of Deuteronomy was written. Most of it is Moshe speaking to the people. Does this mean that the book was all Moshe's creation? As the Radbaz writes in a responsum (2143), no. The Torah says (Deut. 1:3) that Moshe was telling the people what G-d had commanded him to say. See also the Ramban's introduction to Deuteronomy and Shita Mekubetzet to Berachot 21a. There is one exception to this, however. The Gemara in Megillah 31b says that the curses in Deut. 28:16-68 were said by Moshe on his own. In other words, Moshe (prophetically) chose the words to say to the people and, when G-d dictated the Torah to Moshe, these same words were used. It is not that Moshe wrote this portion of the Torah. Rather, Moshe's words were like the ancient scrolls that were chosen by G-d to be incorporated into the Torah. See Ramban to Leviticus 26:15 and Torah Shelemah vol. 19 p. 334.

Giving Your Firstborn Son to God


The Torah (Exodus 22:28) commands Israel to give its firstborn sons to God, and makes no mention of redeeming them. What exactly are they being commanded to do?
Dr. Eve Levavi Feinstein
firstborn son
What to Do with Firstborn Sons
Sacrifice Them
Does the Torah require that every firstborn male child be sacrificed to God?
The question seems preposterous, yet this is the plain meaning of a passage in the Covenant Collection found in Parashat Mishpatim (Exodus 22:28-29):
כב:כח מְלֵאָתְךָ֥ וְדִמְעֲךָ֖ לֹ֣א תְאַחֵ֑ר בְּכ֥וֹר בָּנֶ֖יךָ תִּתֶּן לִּֽי:כב:כט כֵּֽן תַּעֲשֶׂ֥ה לְשֹׁרְךָ֖ לְצֹאנֶ֑ךָ שִׁבְעַ֤ת יָמִים֙ יִהְיֶ֣ה עִם אִמּ֔וֹ בַּיּ֥וֹם הַשְּׁמִינִ֖י תִּתְּנוֹ לִֽי:
22:28 You shall not put off the skimming of the first yield of your vats.[1] You shall give Me the firstborn among your sons.  22:29 You shall do the same with your cattle and your flocks: seven days it shall remain with its mother; on the eighth day you shall give it to Me.
Although this passage does not use any of the common terms for sacrifice, it draws a clear analogy between the act of “giving” firstborn children to God and “giving” firstborn cattle and sheep, which are presumably destined for slaughter. Nothing in the text suggests that firstborn humans or animals are to be treated any differently from one another.
Redeem Them
Parashat
 Ki Tissa (Exod 34:19-20), contains what appears to be another iteration of this law—but one that mercifully spares the human child the fate that appears to await him in Mishpatim:
לד:יט כָּל פֶּ֥טֶר רֶ֖חֶם לִ֑י וְכָֽל מִקְנְךָ֙ תִּזָּכָ֔ר פֶּ֖טֶר שׁ֥וֹר וָשֶֽׂה:לד:כ וּפֶ֤טֶר חֲמוֹר֙ תִּפְדֶּ֣ה בְשֶׂ֔ה וְאִם לֹ֥א תִפְדֶּ֖ה וַעֲרַפְתּ֑וֹכֹּ֣ל בְּכ֤וֹר בָּנֶ֙יךָ֙ תִּפְדֶּ֔ה וְלֹֽא יֵרָא֥וּ פָנַ֖י רֵיקָֽם:
34:19 Every first issue of the womb is Mine, from all your livestock that drop a male as firstling, whether cattle or sheep. 34:20 But the firstling of an ass you shall redeem with a sheep; if you do not redeem it, you must break its neck. And you must redeem every firstborn among your sons. None shall appear before Me empty-handed.
This passage as well presents an analogy between the treatment of firstborn animals and humans: all belong to God.[2] But here the firstborn of an ass—an animal that may not be sacrificed—must be redeemed, or exchanged, for a sheep, and the firstborn of a human mother must likewise be redeemed. This law upholds the principle that all firstborns belong to God, while making a practical distinction between firstborns that are slaughtered on an altar (“kosher” animals) and those that are not (“non-kosher” animals and humans).[3]
Explaining the Law in Mishpatim:
Traditional Approach
Redeem Them (Pidyon Haben)
Traditional Jewish exegesis assumes that the Torah’s laws agree with each other. Therefore, most traditional scholars interpret the phrase “you shall give me the firstborn among your sons” in line with Exodus 34:20, as a command to redeem the firstborn. For instance, Rashi (1041-1105) states:
בכור בניך תתן לי – לפדותו בחמשה סלעים מן הכהן.
“You shall give me the firstborn among your sons” – redeem him for five coins from the priest.
(Rashi derives the five coin rule from a yet a third source, one of the Priestly versions of this law [Num 18:16]).
Even starker is the comment by R. Tobiah ben Eliezer (11th cent.) in his Lekach Tov (Exod 22:28):
בכור בניך תתן לי. כמשמעו להיות פודהו ונותן דמיו לכהן:
“You shall give me the firstborn among your sons” – as it sounds: to redeem him and give the money to the priest.
R. Tobiah doesn’t seem to realize that a simple reading of the verse does not yield what he says “it sounds like.” He is so influenced by the other verses that he no longer actually hears what it seems to explicitly say.
Sanctuary Workers
An alternative interpretation of this verse assumes that the firstborn are being commanded to serve God, in the way Priests and Levites will do. R. Obadiah Seforno (ca. 1475-1550) suggests this reading:
בכור בניך תתן לי. לכל עבודת קדש, לעבודת המקדש ולתלמוד תורה כמו שהיה אחר כך בכהנים…
“You shall give me the firstborn among your sons” – for all forms of holy service, whether working in the Temple or studying Torah, as will be done afterwards by the Priests…
Seforno assumes that the verb נ-ת-נ means to give to God as a temple servant; in fact, the same verb is used in 1 Sam 1:11, where Hannah promises to give to God the boy that she is hoping for (ונתתיו לי-הוה). Seforno suggests that Exodus 22:28 represents God’s original plan, to have the firstborn serve him, but this plan changes later when the Levites and Priests take their place.
Oddly, according to this model, the law only remains relevant for a few days. By the time the mishkan is built (which begins in the next parasha), the Levites and the Priests, not the firstborn, will serve as functionaries. In fact, following the traditional conception of when the Torah was written, the law was only put to ink after it was already defunct.
The Analogy to Animals
The traditional responses cited above do not explain why the law in Mishpatim makes it sound as if the rule for firstborn humans is the same as that for firstborn animals. Other traditional sources do address this issue, by relying on another basic hermeneutical assumption, something we might call “the redundancy rule.”[4] The Torah cannot be redundant, so why is the same law repeated in multiple places? The answer the rabbis generally give is that the repetition is meant to teach us something about the commandment.
For example, Mekhilta de-Rashbi learns from the words “give to me” about the significance of the commandment:
בכור בניך תתן לי יכול יתנם לו ודאי ת”ל ויתן משה את כסף הפדיום לאהרן ולבניו (במ’ ג נא)… אם כן למה נאמר בכור בניך תתן ליכל זמן שאתה נותנו כמצותו מעלה אני עליך כאלו לי נתתו ובזמן שאין אתה נותנו כמצותו מעלה אני עליך כאלו אותי קפחת.
“You shall give me the firstborn among your sons” – perhaps I should give them to [God] in fact? Another verse teaches you (Num 3:51): “And Moses gave the money of their redemption to Aaron and his sons.”… If so, why does it say “you shall give me the firstborn among your sons”? [God is saying:] Whenever you give [the money] as required, I count it as if you gave it to me directly, and whenever you don’t give it as required, I count it as if you shortchanged me directly.
Rashi, quoting Mekhilta deRabbi Ishmael (“Masechta Dekaspa” 19), records a different midrash that derives a new rule about redeeming animals from this verse (Exod 22:28):
והלא כבר צוה עליו במקום אחר, אלא כדי לסמוך לו כן תעשהו לשורך, מה בכור אדם לאחר שלושים יום פודהו שנאמר (במדבר יח טז) ופדויו מבן חדש תפדה, אף בכור בהמה דקה [גסה] מטפל בו שלשים יום ואחר כך נותנו לכהן:
Wasn’t this already commanded somewhere else? Rather, it wishes to juxtapose this law to the words “you shall do the same with your cattle.” Just as the firstborn human is redeemed on his thirtieth day, as it says (Num 18:16): “and his redemption: you shall redeem him a month and older,” so too the firstborn of your animals: you should take care of them for thirty days and then give them to the priest. 
Both solutions are classically midrashic: neither has any basis in the simple reading of the text. The need for the midrash underlines the problematic nature of the verse: Is it really possible that the Torah is mandating giving firstborn male humans to God just as firstborn animals are given?
Explaining the Multiple Versions of the Law:
Academic Approach
In contrast to the midrash, critical scholarship does not assume that different instantiations of the same law were originally meant to be read in light of one another. In some cases, one text may be building on another, or one text may be revising or even attempting to polemicize against another.
The relationship between the laws in Mishpatim (ch. 22) and Ki Tissa (ch. 34) is a matter of debate in contemporary scholarship. The laws in Mishpatim are part of what is known as the Covenant Collection, an ancient collection of laws which was included as part of the northern E document. The origin of the laws in Ki Tissa is more complex. Many scholars believe that these laws are an alternate Decalogue (referred to in scholarship as the “Ritual Decalogue”) and that it was part of the J document.[5] This claim has been challenged of late by redaction-critical scholars such as Shimon Gesundheit, who see the law collection in ch. 34 as a supplement meant to revise the laws in ch. 22.[6]
If we assume that the law about redeeming the firstborn in Ki Tissa is independent of the law in Mishpatim, then we should not interpret the latter in terms of the former. If it was written in reaction to the law in Mishpatim, then it is revising or even polemicizing against the older law by rewriting it. Either way, we have no choice but to attempt to understand the law in Mishpatim in its own terms.
Interpretation 1:
Exodus 22 as Requiring Child Sacrifice

Death and Resurrection of the Beloved Son The Transformation of Child Sacrifice in Judaism and Christianity
As stated at the outset, on its own terms, the simplest interpretation of Exodus 22:28 is that it requires the slaughter of all firstborn sons. This is the view taken by many modern biblical scholars, including Jon Levenson, who defends it in his Death and Resurrection of the Beloved Son: The Transformation of Child Sacrifice in Judaism and Christianity.[7]
Analogy to the Cherem Law in LeviticusThe possibility that the Torah has a law mandating child sacrifice may be shocking, but this would not be the only Torah text to require human sacrifice. The law of the cherem, the donation of something (or someone) to God, found in Leviticus 27 also references something akin to human sacrifice:
כז:כח אַךְ כָּל חֵ֡רֶם אֲשֶׁ֣ר יַחֲרִם֩ אִ֨ישׁ לַֽי-הֹוָ֜ה מִכָּל אֲשֶׁר ל֗וֹ מֵאָדָ֤ם וּבְהֵמָה֙ וּמִשְּׂדֵ֣ה אֲחֻזָּת֔וֹ לֹ֥א יִמָּכֵ֖ר וְלֹ֣א יִגָּאֵ֑ל כָּל חֵ֕רֶם קֹֽדֶשׁ קָֽדָשִׁ֥ים ה֖וּא לַי-הֹוָֽה:כז:כט כָּל חֵ֗רֶם אֲשֶׁ֧ר יָחֳרַ֛ם מִן הָאָדָ֖םלֹ֣א יִפָּדֶ֑ה מ֖וֹת יוּמָֽת:
27:28 But any cherem that a person declares cherem to Yhwh from his property, whether of humans or a beast or of his ancestral field, it shall be neither sold nor redeemed; all cherem is holy of holies unto Yhwh. 27:29 Every human cherem that is declared cherem shall not be redeemed; he shall be put to death.  
Here we see explicitly that once a person is dedicated to God, the person must be killed.[8]The verse explicitly rejects redemption as an option.[9] On the most straightforward reading, it would seem that the author of Exodus 22:28 held a similar view with regard to firstborn sons.
Examples of Child Sacrifice in the Bible
There are also several narrative texts that seem to portray child sacrifice as a legitimate practice, or at least do not explicitly condemn it:
  • God tells Abraham to sacrifice his son (Gen 22). Although in the end God prevents Abraham from going through with the sacrifice, a plain reading of the text does not suggest that child sacrifice is inappropriate. Instead, God praises Abraham for his willingness to offer his son.
  • Jephthah makes an oath to sacrifice whoever is first to come out to greet him when he returns home successful from war. It turns out to be his daughter, and this is what he does (Judg 11:39).[10]
  • Mesha, king of Moab, finding that he is about to lose in battle against the combined forces of Israel and Judah, sacrifices his firstborn son and heir, which turns the tide of the battle in his favor (2 Kings 2:27).
Thus, a law requiring child sacrifice seems to be within the bounds of possibility.
Aspirational Law
While it seems that some biblical authors accepted the idea of occasional human sacrifice, killing every firstborn son would seem to be a highly impractical mandate, one that would decimate the Israelite population. Attempting to address this, Levenson argues that biblical laws were probably rarely carried out exactly as written. They were more aspirational than practical. In this case, the law was meant to express the ideal of God’s ultimate ownership of the first and best of all life. Levenson argues that while some Israelites probably did carry out the gruesome practice of child sacrifice, it was likely never a norm for all families.
Interpretation 2:
Temple Service – Seforno with a Twist
Another possible interpretation of the verse is that suggested by Seforno (discussed earlier). Giving a son to God means dedicating him to service at a local sanctuary. It was noted above that following the traditional model, as Seforno does, the law would only have existed for a handful of days because it was ostensibly legislated at Sinai and cancelled upon the building of the mishkan.
Modern scholarship, however, does not follow the historiographical timeline of the Torah. Therefore, the law in Mishpatim may envision a reality in which firstborn serve as functionaries at local sanctuaries, either with Levites and/or Priests or instead of them.
Hannah’s Dedication of Samuel
Whether the practice of dedicating firstborn sons to service was ever widespread is a separate question. The only biblical reference to such an act occurs in the story of Hannah’s dedication of Samuel to the sanctuary at Shiloh, mentioned above, which was in fulfillment of a voluntary vow rather than on obligation on all families. (In this respect, it resembles two of the examples of child sacrifice cited above: Both Jephthah’s sacrifice of his daughter and Mesha’s sacrifice of his son are in fulfillment of vows.) Thus, even if Seforno’s basic interpretation of the law is preferred over Levenson’s, Levenson is probably correct that the law was aspirational and was never in widespread practice.
Although this interpretation would seem to be undermined by the apparently identical treatment of humans and animals in Exodus 22:28, this is not necessarily the case. The phrase “give to me” used for both animals and children focuses on the act of donation rather than ritual slaughter. In fact, it is not clear that the firstborn animals mentioned in this verse are to be immediately slaughtered; they may simply be understood as donations to the sanctuary’s herd.[11]
Put another way, the analogy between firstborn animals and humans in this verse may suggest that the dedication of a person for service in the sanctuary fell into a broader category of sacred offerings, which included animal sacrifices, the firstfruit offerings (bikkurim) and other types of donations.
Differing Biblical Interpretations:
Ezekiel vs. Numbers 8
Thus far, we have seen two plausible interpretations of the law in Mishpatim: either it mandates the ritual slaughter of firstborn children or it requires that they be dedicated to serve at a sanctuary. I have attributed the former interpretation to the contemporary biblical scholar Jon D. Levenson and the latter to the medieval exegete R. Obadiah Seforno. But there is in fact evidence of both interpretations within the Bible itself.
Ezekiel’s “Bad laws”
Ezekiel 20:25-26 appears to understand the law as mandating the ritual slaughter of firstborn sons.  In this astonishing passage, the prophet states that because the Israelites refused to follow the Lord’s good, life-giving laws, 
וְגַם אֲנִי֙ נָתַ֣תִּי לָהֶ֔ם 
חֻקִּ֖ים לֹ֣א טוֹבִ֑ים 
וּמִ֨שְׁפָּטִ֔ים לֹ֥א יִֽחְי֖וּ בָּהֶֽם: 
וָאֲטַמֵּ֤א אוֹתָם֙ בְּמַתְּנוֹתָ֔ם 
בְּהַעֲבִ֖יר כָּל־פֶּ֣טֶר רָ֑חַם 
לְמַ֣עַן אֲשִׁמֵּ֔ם 
לְמַ֙עַן֙ אֲשֶׁ֣ר יֵֽדְע֔וּ אֲשֶׁ֖ר אֲנִ֥י יְ-הֹוָֽה:
I also gave them bad laws,
Laws that were not good 
and rules by which they could not live. 
When they set aside the first issue of every womb 
I defiled them by their very gifts—
that I might render them desolate, 
that they might know that I am Yhwh.
The phrase “the first issue of every womb” here recalls the law of the firstborn in its various iterations, while the term “set aside” (העביר) recalls the prohibitions of burning children as sacrifices to the god Molech in Leviticus 18:21 and Deuteronomy 18:10. The most straightforward understanding of this passage is that, in Ezekiel’s view, God commanded the Israelites to sacrifice every firstborn child as a punishment for not keeping his “good laws.”[12]
Numbers – Replacing Firstborn Sons with Levites
In contrast, the Priestly source seems to preserve an understanding that firstborn sons were once required to perform sacred service, apparently in a role subordinate to priests, and that they were replaced in this role by the Levites. Numbers 3:12 commands:
וַאֲנִ֞י הִנֵּ֧ה לָקַ֣חְתִּי אֶת הַלְוִיִּ֗ם מִתּוֹךְ֙ בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל תַּ֧חַת כָּל בְּכ֛וֹר פֶּ֥טֶר רֶ֖חֶם מִבְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל וְהָ֥יוּ לִ֖י הַלְוִיִּֽם:
I hereby take the Levites from among the Israelites in place of all the firstborn, the first issue of the womb among the Israelites: the Levites shall be Mine.
In Numbers 8, the Levites are formally installed as workers in the mishkan. Significantly, the Levites are presented as a kind of offering: the Israelites place their hands on the Levites’ heads, as one would do with an animal sacrifice, presenting the Levites as an “elevation offering” (tenufah). This suggests that in the eyes of the priestly author, dedicating a person to serve in a sanctuary was conceptually similar to dedicating an animal for ritual slaughter.
Although the function of these texts is to overturn the law in Mishpatim by replacing the firstborn with Levites, it implies that the original role of the firstborn was similar to that which P assigned to the Levites.  They were to serve God at a sanctuary.[13]
 The Return of Firstborn Life to God
In the end, the biblical evidence does not point to a single conclusive interpretation of the law in Mishpatim. On one hand, it may express a requirement (albeit aspirational) that every Israelite family sacrifice its firstborn son. While it is difficult to accept that the Torah commands the ritual slaughter of children, we can at least see in the commandment’s development an attempt to modify a bad law (as Ezekiel put it) by requiring monetary redemption in place of actual sacrifice (Exodus 34:20).
If, on the other hand, what the law required was service at a sanctuary, it calls for an expansion of our understanding of sacrifice in biblical thought. Indeed, the very plausibility of this interpretation — and the fact of its apparent acceptance by P — argues for a view of sacrifice that is not centrally about slaughter but is equally, if not more, about the act of giving.
In either understanding, the law in Mishpatim expresses the idea that the first of all life properly belongs to God. Underlying its cryptic and challenging mandate we can detect a conviction that every birth, human or animal, is a gift from God, which is to be recognized through a partial, symbolic return of life to its Maker.


[1] The JPS translation ofדמעך  quoted here is based on a connection of דמע with דמעה, “tear,” taking it to refer to liquid products, namely wine and oil, but it may also refer to agricultural produce more generally. See Nahum M. Sarna, The JPS Torah Commentary: Exodus (New York: JPS, 1991), 140–41.
[2] The Priestly texts (Exodus 13, Numbers 3, and Numbers 8) trace the giving of the firstborn to God to the exodus from Egypt, when God killed the Egyptian firstborn sons and animals but allowed the Israelite firstborn to live. Yet the earliest versions of the law, Exodus 22:28–29 and 34:19–20—both non-Priestly texts—make no such connection. Instead, these texts link the law of the firstborn to providing God with the first or best of other agricultural products, suggesting that God’s possession the firstborn is part and parcel of his right to the first and best of all things.
[3] These are not the only texts in the Pentateuch that deal with the firstborn. The books of Exodus (ch. 13) and Numbers (chs. 3, 8, and 18) also discuss what to do with firstborn, and legislate exchanging the firstborn for silver (pidyon haben) or for Levites. See my joint discussion with Zev Farber, “Relegating Redemption of the Firstborn to a One Time Event in the Wilderness.” 
[4] For another discussion of the redundancy rule, see Jonathan Magonet’s TABS essay, “Does the Decalogue Prohibit Stealing?”
[5] See, for example, Richard Elliott Friedman, The Bible with Sources Revealed, (HarperSanFrancisco, 2003), 179.
[6] Shimon Gesundheit, Three Times a Year: Studies on Festival Legislation in the Pentateuch (Tübingen: Mohr Siebeck, 2012), 12-43 (=ch. 1).
[7] New Haven: Yale University Press, 1993.
[8] To solve this glaring problem Rashi is forced to explain this verse to be referring to a person who has already been sentenced to death:
“כל חרם אשר יחרם וגו’ – (ת”כ) היוצא ליהרג ואמר אחד ערכו עלי לא אמר כלום. מות יומת” – הרי הולך למות לפיכך לא יפדה אין לו לא דמים ולא ערך
[9] For more on this law, see Isaac Sassoon’s TABS essay, “Obliterating Cherem.”  
[10] Although the simple reading of the verse is that Jephthah sacrificed his daughter, the Sages assume that she was merely designated to God as a perpetual virgin but not killed. For a defense of this reading, see Jonathan Magonet’s TABS essay, “Did Jephthah Actually Kill His Daughter?”
[11] I thank Baruch Schwartz for this idea.
[12] Elsewhere Ezekiel takes a very negative view of child sacrifice (e.g., Ezekiel 23:37, 39), albeit in the context of idol worship.

[13] See my TABS essay with Zev Farber for an analysis of these passages, “Relegating Redemption of the Firstborn to a One Time Event in the Wilderness.” 


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Child sacrifice was commanded of the Israelites by Yahweh, the biblical God.


You shall not delay to offer from the fulness of your harvest and from the outflow of your presses. The first-born of your sons you shall give to me. You shall do likewise with your oxen and with your sheep: seven days it shall be with its dam; on the eighth day you shall give it to me. (Exodus 22:29-30)


The context of this passage concerns offerings and sacrifices, and it says God requires firstborn sons to be literally sacrificed to him. Later on we find Yahweh admitting he commanded this to Ezekiel


Moreover I gave them statutes that were not good and ordinances by which they could not have life; and I defiled them through their very gifts in making them offer by fire all their first-born, that I might horrify them; I did it that they might know that I am the LORD (Yahweh). (Ezekiel 20:25-26)


Disturbing how Yahweh intentionally played with the Israelites to teach them a lesson, later admitting why did he did it.This again goes back to Ezekiel where Yahweh testifies he is a deceiver.


"If any prophets are DECEIVED into giving a false answer, it is because I, the LORD, have DECEIVED them... (Ezekiel 14:9)


In other words Yahweh deceived Moses the Prophet of the Jews and later tried to justify his deeds to what he did to his people. Interesting how Yahweh told Ezekiel of his evil scheme. could it be the later Jews were questioning child sacrifice to Yahweh?

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