According to Bible, Deuteronomy 18:15-18 does not apply to Jesus as "that Prophet". Here are few of reasons why.
First point, Jesus said a Prophet cannot be killed outside Jerusalem (Luke 13:33) yet, you find Jesus was crucified in Golgotha which is located out Jerusalem thus, Jesus by his own admission is not a Prophet hence, Deuteronomy 18:15-18 does not apply to him. Interestingly, according to the Talmud "that Prophet" in Deuteronomy 18 will have the authority to change the law, (Talmud Yavamot 90b). Jesus said he did not come to break the law Matthew 5:17.
Second point. Jesus said to the Jews, "the kingdom of God will be taken away from them and given to a nation producing its fruit" (Matthew 21:43). If Jesus was that Prophet mentioned in Deuteronomy 18:15-18 then why would the kingdom of God be taken away from the Jews and given to another nation when the "criteria" is, 'God will raise a Prophet from their own brethren'? This would mean "from your own brethren" is not the Jewish people, rather it referring to someone outside the Jewish nation.
Finally, Jesus never claimed to be that Prophet from Deuteronomy 18:15-18 why? Because point one self-refutation. Point two, confirmation to the Jews the kingdom of God belonging to them will be given to another nation bearing its fruit. Why didn't read Deuteronomy 18:15-18 at the synagogue to make his case even stronger? Instead, he read parts of Isaiah. If Moses really wrote about him as claimed in John 5:46, Luke 24:44 then read from Deuteronomy? (Torah), why read from the Nevi'im (Scroll of Isaiah at the synagogue, Luke 4:16-17) written roughly 700 years later? Do you see the problem when Christians try to fit Jesus with Deuteronomy 18. Sorry it doesn't work!
The Torah and Talmud both teach a "false prophet" should be killed, (Deuteronomy 18:20, Talmud Sanhedrin 89a). Is Jesus of the New Testament excluded as a false Prophet? Let's find out.
Jesus prophesised to his disciple regarding the desolation of second temple “Truly I tell you, not one stone here will be left on another; every one will be thrown down.” (Matthew 24:2). Notice how Jesus made a bold prophecy that "not one stone will be left on another". The question is, was this prophecy fulfilled? Unfortunately, it was not. Till now the western wall remains standing with the walls so high it will make you raise your head. And yes! the stones are on top of each other. This is a blatant false prophecy making Jesus a false Prophet.
The Talmud reads no more prophets will arrive after Prophet Malachi, (Talmud Sotah 48b, Bava Batra 12b). This would mean the line of Prophethood from the descended of Isaac has ended with Malachi, i.e. all the Israelites Prophets have played their part and no more is expected. Jesus was a Jew thus, to the Jews, Jesus cannot be a Prophet since prophethood has ended. If the line of Prophethood from the descendent Isaac has stopped then we are left with Ishmael's line of descendent. It is the line of Ishmael who qualify to bring a Prophet to the people, and unlike the Jews they hold no single race as superior thus, this Prophet will be universal.
Jesus according to Matthew supposed to have said, he will send "Prophets, wise men and scribes" (Matthew 23:34). Question is, which Prophet came after Jesus? We can conclude Jesus of the New Testament does not qualify as a true Prophet, and the Jews knew that. The Jews were well aware of another Prophet to arrive who is not an Israelite Jew.
We learn from the Talmud all Jewish prophets ended after Malachi (Sotah 48b, Bava Batra 12b)
Rabbis questioning John the Baptist whether he was that Prophet in John 1:21 was referring to the Arab Prophet found in Isaiah 42. They knew the line of Isaac ended and now the line of Ishmael started. They went out searching.
Since then, no prophet has risen in Israel like Moses, whom the Lord knew face to face (Deuteronomy 34:10)
Interestingly, the Samaritan Torah reads as "there will not arise again" (The Anchor Bible Dictionary vol.5)
Both past and future tense makes a big change. This would mean Jesus of the NT does not qualify as that "prophet" mentioned in Deuteronomy 18:18, which Peter used in Acts 3:22.
"a prophet who predicts peace must show he is right. Only when his predictions come true can we know that he is really from the LORD.” (Jeremiah 28:9)
Do not suppose that I have come to bring peace to the earth. I did not come to bring peace, but a sword. (Matt 10:34)
"I will raise up a prophet like you…" (Deuteronomy 18:18)
Wait! According to Christians, Jesus is Yahweh? So, using Deuteronomy 18:18 we find an awkward rendering of who Yahweh is
Jesus is Yahweh who is also a Prophet who is also like Moses? This would mean Moses was another God side by side with Yahweh hence, Exodus 7:1 fits in perfectly
Using the Christian concept of Jesus being Yahweh would make Yahweh being like Moses. Yahweh created man in his own image.
The Messiah (המשיח- Ha-Mashiac) is mentioned 4 times in the Torah all refer to the
Leviticus priests. Here's the problem, Jesus said Moses wrote about him (Luke
24:44-46) if this is true why don't we find any reference where Moses wrote המשיח pointing to Jesus where is
this text?
מְשִׁיחִ֖ Messiah is mentioned 39 times
in the Hebrew bible. המשיח The-Messiah,
(definite article) is mentioned 4 times in the Hebrew bible. Jesus of the New
Testament claimed Moses wrote about him, John 5:46, Luke 24:44-46, the question
is, where is he mentioned as The Messiah המשיח (definite article) in the
writings of Moses?
Please provide the book, chapter and
verse in Hebrew thanks.
“From your Brethren” Genesis 25:18; 16:12 says Ishmael dwelt among his Brethren (Israel and Edom) Deut 23:7 calls Edomite, Brethren of the Israelites, Hence, Ishmaelites are the Brethren of the Israelites, as recognized by the Rabbis as well.
Maimonides and others admit, the Phrase “of thy Brethren” can refer to the Ishmaelites.
Some may ask, what about the extra letters in V. 15 “from within you”. does it not restrict it within the Israelites? A: Itʼs only present in the Masoretic Text (MT), which is post-Islāmic. All other versions, including the SP, LXX and even when the NT cites it, it's not there.
To further prove, it is a non-Israelite, Dt 34:10 says, “There since has there arise in Israel a Prophet like Moses” According to the Samaritans it is, “There Never will arise in Israel Prophet like Moses” Meaning, the Prophet like Moses must arise outside Israel.
Rabbis Admit, this means the Prophet must arise among the Non-Israelite Nation (i.e the Ishmaelites)
An admission that the promise of Ishmael to a Great nation was manifested through the rise of Islam
Even the secular scholars, admit there is a contradiction between Dt 18:18 and Dt 34:10, In order to avoid it, you have to admit Dt 18:18 is not about an Israelite.
Rabbis say this verse means angel will bring revelation to That Prophet. We know Jibrīl (Gabriel) bought revelation of Allāh ﷻ, to Muḥammad ﷺ.
Some may ask, doesnʼt the NT say Jesus was the Prophet like Moses in John 5:46? No, Bible scholars mentioned the meaning to be something else.
He ﷺ spoke to God, without any intermediary, as mentioned by, 1. al-Ḥāfiḏh Ibn Kaṯhīr
2. Ibn Al-Qayyim رحمه الله compares Moses speaking with Muḥammad ﷺ
3. Ibn ʿUṯhaymīn رحمه الله in his Creedal work, explained God spoke to Muḥammad ﷺ without any Intermediary.
Some may ask what about Dt 17:15 limiting Brethren to the Israelites? Scholars Mention this passage originally comes centuries later, and was retrojected in Deut. Nothing to do with Dt 18:18
The Constitution of The Monarchy in Israel, Baruch Halpern.
The Jewish Study Bible, The Pentateuch (Oxford Bible Commentary) by Barton, John.
Retrojecting something in the Text is a common Jewish Habit, even Jewish-Christian scholar Michael Brown admits it.
n conclusion, Moses if like Muḥammad ﷺ Prophet like Moses must be from the Brethren of the Israelites (i.e Ishmaelites) He must speak what God command He Must speak with God face to Face He Must speak in Godʼs name
