Thursday 17 November 2016

Who spoke Yahweh or satan?




And a voice came from heaven: "You are my Son, whom I love; with you I am well pleased." (Mark 1:11)


From the above verse it seems pretty much clear that The voice that came from the heaven was of Yahweh's ? However when we read the gospel of john we find another rather interesting passage:


And the Father who sent me has himself testified concerning me. You have never heard his voice nor seen his form, (John 5:37)

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Now the question is if jesus himself according to john is saying that no one has heard or seen God? So how did the author witness  this event? Or even worse how did John the Baptist witness  and hear ? 

Then John gave this testimony: "I saw the Spirit come down from heaven as a dove and remain on him. And I myself did not know him, but the one who sent me to baptize with water told me, 'The man on whom you see the Spirit come down and remain is the one who will baptize with the Holy Spirit.' (John 1:32-33)

Was the author present there when John the Baptist heard yahweh speak? Which still leaves us with the big problem that no one has HEARD THE VOICE of yahweh, bear in mind jesus never said satan could not be heard?... What makes one say Satan wasn't the one speaking instead of yahweh... Just like Paul apparently heard jesus speak  ! 

Who's words are more dearer to christians the authors or Jesus's, if jesus is saying no one has heard the voice of Yahweh, them It's only Understood  SATAN SPOKE!!

What a blunder !! 

Jesus of the bible a sinner who repented!!




Did jesus give any clue that he was a sinner? According to the books of the New Testaments he did, we find passages to show that jesus of the bible was a sinner and used to Repent. Christians brag that the jesus they worship and follow was a sinless lamb and perfect in all ways... However they have no evidence of the 18 missing years of their so called sinless saviôur? Where was jesus and what was he doing its a mystery even biblical historians find hard to Answer..

Below we shall see how jesus of the bible before his ministry was a sinner and during his ministry would repent. Firstly Jesus was Baptised by John the Baptist and we know about John the Baptist and what he used to do for a living...

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 "And he came into all the country about Jordan, preaching the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins." (Luke 3:3)


Then Jerusalem was going out to him, and all Judea and all the district around the Jordan; and they were being baptized by him in the Jordan River, as they confessed their sins he baptized them in the Jordan River. (Matthew 3:5-6)

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From the above evidence from the gospels themselves we read that John the Baptist will  "preach the baptism of repentance" and all people will come get baptised to wash away there SINS!!.... It's bizarre to read that the sinless lamb was baptised?


Then Jesus arrived from Galilee at the Jordan coming to John, to be baptized by him.
(Matthew 3:13)

At that time Jesus came from Nazareth in Galilee and was baptized by John in the Jordan. (Mark 1:9)

When all the people were being baptized, Jesus was baptized too. 
(Luke 3:21)

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Now christians being deceptive will say no no jesus was setting us an example that we should get baptized so we are purified... But that goes against the words of john the Baptist   Who said jesus will baptize with Holy Spirit and fire NOT WATER!

"I baptize you with water for repentance. But after me comes one who is more powerful than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire. (Matthew 3:11)

This concludes jesus was baptised by water and was a sinner since John the Baptist was cleaning those who sinned... And jesus being a man would also be liable to sin much like anyone.. Since no one knows what he was doing before his ministry started Naturally he wanted a fresh start and what better place then start of by getting baptised....


Second point jesus praying for forgiveness 



One day Jesus was praying in a certain place. When he finished, one of his disciples said to him, "Lord, teach us to pray, just as John taught his disciples."And He said to them, "When you pray, say: 'Father, hallowed be Your name. Your kingdom come. 'Give us each day our daily bread. 'And forgive us our sins, For we ourselves also forgive everyone who is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation.'"
Luke (11:1-4)

Interestingly jesus of the bible prayed?? His disciples asked him how to teach the. How they should pray after they saw jesus himself pray... Now jesus would teach word for word what he would pray right ? And funny enough jesus prayed FORGIVE US OUR SINS!! Once again jesus is humble enough to admit he is a sinner unlike christians trying to hide it..  also in Matthew 6:12  according to Smith and Van Dyke Arabic Bible, the word used to denote the actual Greek word is ‘zunubana’ (i.e. our sins):

(وَاغْفِرْ لَنَا ذُنُوبَنَا كَمَا نَغْفِرُ نَحْنُ أَيْضاً لِلْمُذْنِبِينَ إِلَيْنَا) transliterated as ‘waghfirlana zunubana’ i.e. forgive us our sins.

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Biblically repenting isn't a taboo, why do christians try to hide jesus repenting when yahweh himself repented? Imagine God of the bible God of Isreal Repents so what makes jesus any special that he shouldn't?

Genesis 6:6 
Exodus 32:11-14
Deuteronomy 32:36-42
1 Samuel 15:11, 35 
2 Samuel 24:1-16
1 chronicles 21:1-15
Jeremiah 18:8
Jeremiah 26:13
Jeremiah 42:10
Jonah 3:3-10
Amos 7:1-3
Amos 7:4-6
Jeremiah 15:6 etc.....

This paper should be sufficient to shut these deceptive christians !!
SHAME!!



Holy crap!!




And he came to the sheepcotes by the way, where was a cave; and Saul went in to cover his feet: and David and his men remained in the sides of the cave. (1 Samuel 24:3)

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 Saul went to "COVER HIS FEET" what does that mean? Well, according to Rashi medieval Tanak scholar "to cover his feet" means  : To stool  (Call of nature, having to go toilet to get rid of waste! (i.e. taking a crap, having a S**T) 

The question is, why would this be added as part of God's word? How does that benefit if one applies 2 Timothy 3:16 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness,


Absolutely pathetic the God of the bible adding Saul had to take a crap? This is a joke 

Shame on you jews and Christians !!!



According to Isaiah, Yahweh will shave "pubic hair" (רֶגֶל (regel) with a razor?


In that day the Lord will shave with a razor that is hired beyond the River—with the king of Assyria—the head and the hair of the feet, and it will sweep away the beard also. (Isaiah 7:20)


Talmudic commentary suggests רֶגֶל (regel),means pubic hair or the private part area

The Gemara continues its challenge. Come and hear another verse: “He had neither dressed his feet [raglav], nor trimmed his beard” (II Samuel 19:25). The phrase “dressed his feet [raglav]” is referring to treating his pubic hair, implying that even the area around the thigh is referred to as regel. The Gemara answers: This is a euphemism. The Gemara attempts another challenge: Come and hear from another verse: “And Saul went in to cover his feet [raglav]” (I Samuel 24:3), meaning: To urinate, implying that regel refers even to the thighs. The Gemara answers: This is also a euphemism. (Yevamot 103a:15)

Yahweh would shave pubic hair רֶגֶל regel,? Seriously! Let's not get confused, according to 1 Samuel 24:3 Saul went to "COVER HIS FEET" (רֶגֶל regel, what does that mean? Well, according to Rashi medieval Tanak scholar "to cover his feet" means : To stool (Call of nature, having to go toilet to get rid of waste! i.e. taking a crap, having a S**T (Emphasis added)


Meaning back and front will be shaved by a razor

Mark, Matthew! Luke & John are damned ( According to Paul )




But even if we or an angel from heaven should preach a gospel other than the one we preached to you, let them be under God's curse! As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed. (Galatians 1:8-9)

 Very interesting statement is found in one of the letters of Paul to the Galatians, it seems to destroy the fountain of the 4 gospels written by Mark Matthew Luke and John.. Notice how it states if any angel or human should preach another gospel other then what Paul preached then they should be damned!!

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Funny enough Mark, Matthew, Luke and john wrote the gospels well after paul much longer... Infact luke in his biography of jesus explicitly states many have written and he is just another, but with a better understanding?


Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled[a] among us,just as they were handed down to us by those who from the first were eyewitnesses and servants of the word. With this in mind, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, I too decided to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus,  (Luke 1:1-3)

Shall we conclude that the current Gospels that christians take for granted are sanctioned by paul as unauthentic and those men's are to be damned!!!

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How about paul what gospels did he preach? when we read the book of Acts and letters to the Corinthians we find something very interesting :


In everything I did, I showed you that by this kind of hard work we must help the weak, remembering the words the Lord Jesus himself said: 'It is more blessed to give than to receive.' " (Acts 20:35)

Also read :

In the same way, the Lord has commanded that those who preach the gospel should receive their living from the gospel. (1 Corinthians 9:14)

As well as :

2 Corinthians 12:8-9 — Paul quotes Jesus, but it doesn’t sound like Jesus, and the quote isn’t elsewhere.


(No such statement of Jesus is found elsewhere in the Bible.) I've done a extensive check, cross references  and found nothing? Which tells us the current writers did not preach what Paul preached 
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SHAME!!!


who was the Scribe ( Seraiah, Shavsha, Shemaiah ?)




Zadok son of Ahitub and Ahimelek son of Abiathar were priests; Seraiah was Scribe
(2 Samuel 8:17)



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Zadok son of Ahitub and Ahimelek son of Abiathar were priests; Shavsha was Scribe
(1 Chronicles 18:16)


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The Scribe Shemaiah son of Nethanel, a Levite, recorded their names in the presence of the king and of the officials: Zadok the priest, Ahimelek son of Abiathar and the heads of families of the priests and of the Levites--one family being taken from Eleazar and then one from Ithamar. 
(1 chronicles 24:6)


A book which claims it's not confusing?  

Something to ponder on



The word Judaism is not found in the Old Testament, nor is Judaism called a Religion in the Old Testament so what religion did Moses present to the children of Israel  I.e Nation to follow?

Now one may say just because the Old Testament doesn't use the word Judaism doesn't mean people wasn't aware of it, take for instance the New Testament we find Judaism in there. But notice Judaism is only spoken by Paul? Not even Jesus himself nor the gospels uttered such a word?. Secondly the questions authenticity depends on the Old Testament the entire codex has no mention of such a religion how comes ? 

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Here comes the blow 

What religion did the prophets of the Old Testament follow is not mentioned, nor does the Old Testament distinguish their belief status other then calling them righteous, upright, perfect, servants etc... Now what makes you say they did not follow Islam as their religion since being righteous, upright, prefect is following the right path o.e monotheism which is the religion of ISLAM...

Christians say there is no Islam in the bible nor is Judaism found in the Tanack shall we conclude Moses and his people did not have a religion? 

The Bible says nothing against pedophila pedophile ( infant child )



What the Bible says about Pedophilia

The Bible has nothing to say against pedophilia.
But it does have some passages that seem to approve of it. For example:
It's OK to have sex with "women children" that are obtained in war.
And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, Avenge the children of Israel of the Midianites ... And they warred against the Midianites, as the LORD commanded Moses; and they slew all the males ... And the children of Israel took all the women of Midian captives, and their little ones ... And Moses was wroth with the officers ... And Moses said unto them, Have ye saved all the women alive? ... Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him. But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves. Numbers 31:1-18
When thou comest nigh unto a city to fight against it ... And when the LORD thy God hath delivered it into thine hands, thou shalt smite every male thereof with the edge of the sword: But the women, and the little ones, and the cattle, and all that is in the city, even all the spoil thereof, shalt thou take unto thyself. Deuteronomy 20:10-14
How shall we do for wives for them that remain, seeing we have sworn by the LORD that we will not give them of our daughters to wives? ... And the congregation sent thither twelve thousand men of the valiantest, and commanded them, saying, Go and smite the inhabitants of Jabeshgilead with the edge of the sword, with the women and the children. And this is the thing that ye shall do, Ye shall utterly destroy every male, and every woman that hath lain by man. And they found among the inhabitants of Jabeshgilead four hundred young virgins, that had known no man by lying with any male: and they brought them unto the camp to Shiloh. Judges 21:7-11
Go and lie in wait in the vineyards; And see, and, behold, if the daughters of Shiloh come out to dance in dances, then come ye out of the vineyards, and catch you every man his wife of the daughters of Shiloh ... And the children of Benjamin did so, and took them wives, according to their number, of them that danced, whom they caught. Judges 21:20-23
It's OK to sell your daughter (no mention is made of age) to a man for him to use as a sex slave.
if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant ... If she please not her master, who hath betrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed ... If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. Exodus 21:7-10

Biblical Fiction !!


The authors of The New Interpreter's Bible, like the other writers that we have mentioned earlier, state that the biblical Book of Esther is work of fiction that happens to contain some historical elements. It then lists many factual errors only to conclude that the Book of Esther is not a historical record.
Although much ink has been spilled in attempting to show that Esther, or some parts of it is historical, it is clear that the book is a work of fiction that happens to contain some historical elements. The historical elements may be summarized as follows: Xerxes, identified as Ahaseurus, was a "great king" whose empire extended from the borders of India to the borders of Ethiopia. One of the four Persians capitals was located as Susa (the other three being Babylon, Ecbatana, and Persepolis). Non-Persians could attain to high office in the Persian court (witness Nehemiah), and the Persian empire consisted of a wide variety of peoples and ethnic groups. The author also displays a vague familiarity with the geography of Susa, knowing, for example, that the court was separate from the city itself. Here, however, the author's historical veracity ends. Among the factual errors found in the book we may list these: Xerxes' queen was Amestris, to whom he was married throughout his reign; there is no record of a Haman or a Mordecai (or, indeed, of any non-Persian) as second to Xerxes at any time; there is no record of a great massacre in which thousands of the people were killed at any point in Xerxes' reign. The book of Esther is not a historical record, even though its author may have wished to present it as history...

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Reference 
 L. E. Keck et al. (Eds.), The New Interpreter's Bible: General Articles & Introduction, Commentary, & Reflections For Each Book Of The Bible, Including The Apocryphal / Deuterocanonical Books, 1994, Volume III, Abingdon Press: Nashville

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