Very weak and pathetic argument made by James White and David wood

Christians apologists such as James White and David wood use such pathetic arguments which only further lowers their status in front of Muslims. 

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David and James both state that  Muslims believe that Prophet Muhammed Pbuh is the Comforter whom is mentioned in the gospel of John, but they add a twist to it. They say that Jesus said that he will send the Comforter and if Muslims believe that God sent the Comforter then doesn't that make Jesus God since he said he will send the Comforter ? 

But very truly I tell you, it is for your good that I am going away. Unless I go away, the Advocate will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you. (John 16:7)

Notice how the apologist focus's on the part where Jesus said  "I WILL SEND HIM TO YOU" they are trying to say, Jesus will send the Comforter so Jesus must be God. Do you see how they twisted the entire saying?  had they read chapter 14 of the very same Bible, they wouldn't of humiliated themselves with such a BLUNDER!

And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another advocate to help you and be with you forever (John 14:16)

Notice from the above verse Jesus is saying "I WILL ASK THE FATHER" I.e he will ask God to send the Comforter this is again clarified in John 15 

“But when the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth, who proceeds from the Father, he will bear witness about me. (John 15:26)

Again Jesus will send the comforter FROM THE FATHER! A good example could be you working for a private company taking an order  and  saying  don't worry I'll get the goods delivered to you, but in reality you didn't send the delivery yourself you  consulted with the manager of the company he first approved it, then you got  it sent confirming  to the customer I'VE SENT YOUR DELIVERY! Did you really send it from yourself or was it approved by your boss?

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In short Jesus said he will ask God to send the Comforter and not that he will send the comforter himself, since Jesus himself said :

By myself I can do nothing... ( John 5:30)

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for arguments sake even if we took what James and David claimed then we have a serious problem to deal with since Jesus was SENT by Pilate to Herod?

When he learned that Jesus was under Herod's jurisdiction, he sent him to Herod, who was also in Jerusalem at that time. (Luke 23:7)

Elijah sends a letter to Jehoram from heaven?

I want to share another hilarious Biblical absurdity found in the book of Kings and  Chronicles. Let's  read couple of verses from the book of Kings, before to jump to Chronicles.

As they were walking along and talking together, suddenly a chariot of fire and horses of fire appeared and separated the two of them, and Elijah went up to heaven in a whirlwind. (2 Kings 2:11)

In the fifth year of Joram son of Ahab king of Israel, when Jehoshaphat was king of Judah, Jehoram son of Jehoshaphat began his reign as king of Judah. (2 Kings 8:16)

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Now I don't have to give a commentary for the above verses posted, every Christian and Jew knows Elijah was taken up to heaven in a whirlwind. I've also added the name of Jehoram the son of Jehoshaphat since he will be the subject of this absurdity in order to complete this I have to add another verse so you can verify it yourself.

Jehoram received a letter from Elijah the prophet, which said: "This is what the LORD, the God of your father David, says: 'You have not followed the ways of your father Jehoshaphat or of Asa king of Judah. (2 chronicles 21:12)

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Wait a sec how's that possible? If Elijah went to heaven before Jehoram became king, which happened on the fifth year how did he get a letter from Elijah? DID ELIJAH SEND A LETTER FROM HEAVEN, ARE YOU SAYING THERE'S A POST BOX AND POST MAN IN HEAVEN WHO SENDS DOWN LETTERS? THIS IS A JOKE ! The letter was admonishing Jehoram for not following his fathers footsteps. it wasn't a letter written in the past, rather was a present letter.

Now Christians please solve this super blunder how Elijah the prophet ascended into heaven on a "chariot of fire" during the reign of Jehoshaphat (i.e. Jehoshaphat was still king after Elisha had succeeded Elijah - 2 Kings 3:11). How then could King Jehoram, who succeeded Jehoshaphat as king, have received a letter from Elijah after Elijah was taken away?

Also if Jesus was supposed to be in heaven with Yahweh like Christians tell us why then didn't Elijah mention of him in his letter which was send from HEAVEN!

In short, Jehoram began to reign after Elijah went to heaven (2 Kings 2:11, 8:16), so how could King Jehoram receive a letter from him? (2 Chronicles 21:12)

Before Jesus even started to heal an angel would come and heal people?

For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had. (John 5:4)

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The above passage puts Christians into a serious problem.! We are told that an Angels would come down on certain season to a pool of water and heal those who were in need??... So what makes Jesus of the bible having  such a miracle of healing so special  when an Angel came from the heavens which john seems to record in his book??

Also how comes none of the Synoptics mentioned of such A Miraculous event that took place on certain occasion. Which Jewish books made mention of is event did they also see the Angel come down?????? 

Not a single shred evidence is found in any Jewish writerings, ANOTHER MADE UP LIE BY JOHN let's find out more by comparing the NIV & KJV

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“3Here a great number of disabled people used to lie—the blind, the lame, the paralyzed. 5One who was there had been an invalid for thirty-eight years.” (John 5:3-5 NIV)

                                                    Compare with 

“In these lay a great multitude of impotent folk, of blind, halt, withered, waiting for the moving of the water. 4For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had. 5And a certain man was there, which had an infirmity thirty and eight years.”  (John 5:3-5 KJV)

What happened to verse 4? The KJV decided to include it because it was in the manuscripts they had at their disposal. The NIV decided to omit it because in the 400 years since the KJV was translated much older manuscripts had surfaced that did not have that verse. Remember, the KJV was translated largely from the Textus Receptus which was a compilation of manuscripts that did not even date prior to 1100 AD. The NIV translation committee had access to manuscripts dating back within 150 years of the original documents of the New Testament.

What happened in the 800 years between the texts the NIV is based on and the texts the KJV is based on? Copying, copying, and more copying. Often a copyist would write an explanation in the margin and some times that explanation would end up in the text. Bruce Metzger (Text of the New Testament, 194) thinks that is exactly what happened in the case of John 5:4. Why? For several reasons (listed in Metzger’s textual commentary 3rd ed, 209):