WITHOUT PAEDOPHILES THERE IS NO CHRISTIAN MESSIAH.

  

If a person you are having a dialogue with lacks basic knowledge of the subject in question, then you know it’s not worth the time or energy. This isn’t to say that you are losing the discussion; it means you’re wasting precious time that could be more productive in other ways.

Take, for example, the topic of child marriage. For some bizarre reason Christians keep bringing this up obsessively, as if it’s central to their faith, and staying silent on it would somehow make them lose that faith.

Now, discussing certain matters can open the door to meaningful conversation and a better understanding of one another’s views. However, when the same topic is repeatedly used as a weapon against Muslims, it becomes patronising, unproductive, and intellectually dishonest and ultimately leads nowhere.

Let’s make one thing clear, the marriage of Prophet Muhammed Pbuh to our Mother Aisha RA was ordained by Allah Swt. Yet some Christians obsess over her young age, elevating this one point as if it invalidates everything else. why the Prophet Muhammed Pbuh married our Mother Aisha RA at a young age. It is treated as the centre of attention, as if no other human being in history ever married someone young. Labelling the Messenger Pbuh as a “paedophile” is a blatant lie and a deliberate attack on his character. This grotesque, vile, and offensive language crosses the line into blasphemy and is utterly unacceptable.

Let’s be clear this fallacious and nonsensical Christian polemic is easily dismantled. What age of consent does the Bible actually set for marriage? Where does it explicitly forbid marrying a male or female at the age of six? If Christians claim their morality comes from the Bible, then what does it truly say on this issue? The answer is simple: it doesn’t which makes this nothing more than an argument from silence.

Furthermore, according to which historical, academic, or medical sources is it stated that marrying a six-year-old fifteen hundred years ago without consummation was considered pedophilia? Please cite the relevant scholarship. As a matter of fact, reputable scholarship argues that, “People 1,500 years ago considered such a marriage to be pedophilia”

This brings us back to the original point engaging in discussion with individuals who lack even basic historical knowledge and argue dishonestly is a waste of time.

If you reject Prophet Muhammad Pbuh on the basis of his marriage to our Mother Aisha RA, then consistency demands that you also reject Isaac, the bearer of the everlasting covenant, and King David, the forefather of your Messiah, Jesus. If not, then this is nothing more than selective outrage and outright hypocrisy.

You can’t condemn one person while excusing another in identical circumstances. That’s not debate that’s hypocrisy. It turns your argument into nothing more than a personal attack, fueled by agenda and dressed up as criticism, which is nothing but slander.

Nevertheless, let’s test how consistent Christians really are by approaching the same subject from a more historical perspective.

What does history tell us about the marriages of Isaac and King David? This matter was discussed by the rabbis and was never considered an issue affecting the character of either individual. This also highlights a crucial question: how did early Jewish society understand and accept marriages at a young age?

There’s no need to hunt for hidden texts Jewish sources are readily accessible to anyone willing to read. Open their books and see for yourself. Discussions about the appropriate age of marriage, whether for males or females, were never taboo. The scholars of the Hebrew Bible explicitly mention these ages, claiming they were taught directly by Moses, as revealed to him by God at Mount Sinai.

 

“A Jew can marry a girl three years and day old” (Talmud Sanhedrin 55b)

 

“the halakha with regard to the intercourse of a girl aged three years and one day is a halakha transmitted to Moses from Sinai” (Talmud Niddah 32)

 

“The intercourse of a [girl] less than three years old is not intercourse, is a 'law of Moshe from Sinai.'” (Rambam Introduction to the Mishnah 8:32)

 

“A girl who is three years and one day old whose father arranged her betrothal can be betrothed with intercourse, as, despite her age, the legal status of intercourse with her is that of full-fledged intercourse.” (Talmud Sanhedrin 69a)

 

“Ravina said: Therefore, with regard to a female gentile child who is three years and one day old, since she is fit to engage in intercourse at that age, she also imparts impurity as one who experienced” (Talmud Avodah Zarah 37a:1)

 

 “A girl of the age of three years and one day may be betrothed by intercourse” (Talmud Niddah 44b)

 

“He who loves his wife as himself & honours her more than himself, & leads his children in the right path, & marries them just before they attain puberty” (Talmud Sanhedrin 76b)

 

"It is known that marriage of a minor girl is by rabbinic law, and therefore no one would confuse this type of marriage with an adult marriage." (Talmud Yevamot 107a)

 

“Rava said that this is what the mishna is saying: An adult man who engaged in intercourse with a minor girl less than three years old has done nothing, as intercourse with a girl less than three years old is tantamount to poking a finger into the eye.” (Talmud Ketubot 11b)

These are only a handful of references from Jewish Talmudic sources that explicitly state the age of a female, while other sources address the age of a male. Notice how the rabbis confidently refer to the age of “three years and one day” without hesitation. Consider this carefully, within Judaism, the Torah is understood as divinely inspired law given to Moses, alongside the Oral Law preserved in the Mishnah. All rulings whether concerning marriage, dietary practice, civil matters, finance, or criminal law are derived from both the written and oral traditions.

Here’s the real question: why didn’t Jesus explicitly condemn the teaching or practice of such young ages for marriage? He had no hesitation calling out the rabbis on numerous issues rebuking the Pharisees for their hypocrisy (Matthew 23:24), criticizing their performative fasting (Matthew 6:16–18), and even correcting their teachings by commanding people to love their enemies (Matthew 5:43–44).

So why the silence here? If this were truly a moral outrage, why didn’t Jesus address it directly? How could something so significant be ignored while lesser matters were openly challenged? The reality is simple: the Bible does not speak on it yet it is now being used as a standard of judgment.

Was it something Jesus recognised as part of the cultural norms of his society and therefore left unchallenged? Or was it because he stated that he did not come to abolish the Law, but to fulfil it thus remaining silent on matters the Law itself did not explicitly address? How could a man who stood firmly for truth remain silent on an issue now claimed to be so morally significant?

Let us now move on to another issue one that Christians should address using their own claimed moral standards. Let’s see whether they remain consistent in their argument, or attempt to evade it when the same standard is applied. With all due respect, I generally find many Christian apologists to be dishonest in their arguments, but it would be unfair to paint everyone with the same brush.

 

“…Bathsheba gave birth to Solomon when she was six, because a woman is stronger and can conceive at an earlier age. Know that this is true that women conceive at an earlier age, as Bathsheba had already given birth to a child from David before giving birth to Solomon…” (Talmud Sanhedrin 69b)

"Bathsheba gave birth to Solomon when she was six"

Let’s draw attention to a statement found in the Babylonian Talmud, a text highly revered by Orthodox rabbis. The Talmud records the sayings and rulings of rabbis, derived from the Mishnah the Oral Law they claim traces back to Moses at Sinai. This effectively elevates it to divinely inspired status, forming what they consider a single Torah expressed in two forms: written and oral.

Notice how the rabbis appear to justify the idea of a six-year-old giving birth. This is not presented as an isolated case, but rather as something reflective of a broader social reality of that time. In other words, it was treated as a norm. The discussion itself is framed around the notion that “a woman is stronger and can conceive at an earlier age.” Rabbi Rashi addresses this point in this commentary to this Talmudic writing. In fact, the Talmud even references that a female reaching the age of nine could be regarded as having reached maturity.

The Gemara asks: And how old must a child be to be considered grown up for the purposes of this halakha? Rav Adda bar Rav Azza says that Rav Asi says: A girl must reach the age of nine years and one day; a boy must reach the age of twelve years and one day. (Talmud Kiddushin 81b)

 

The Talmud also speak of a non-important girl marrying age six and giving birth.

 

Yusteni further inquired: And at what age is she fit to become pregnant? Rabbi YehHuda aNasi said to her: When she is at least twelve years and one day old. She said to him: I married when I was six, and gave birth a year later, when I was seven. Woe for those three years, between the age of three, when I was fit for intercourse, and the age of six, when I married, as I wasted those years in my father’s house by not engaging in intercourse. (Talmuld Nidda 45a)

 

If Bathsheba gave birth to Solomon at the age of six, then that would imply that King David consummated the relationship with her when she was around five years old. It is also worth noting that, prior to the birth of Solomon, Bathsheba had another child with King David conceived outside of marriage. You can draw your own conclusions about how old she may have been at the time they committed adultery.

Jesus is considered by Christians to be the seed of David the Messiah from the Davidic line. But would it be fair to claim that the Christian Messiah is descended from a paedophile? If King David married and consummated a relationship with a five year old, wouldn’t that, by default, make him a paedophile. Whys is Jesus linked to such a man? Are Christians willing to be consistent and acknowledge this reality? If they reject Prophet Muhammad Pbuh for marrying our Mother Aisha RA solely because of her age, shouldn’t they also reject King David entirely and question the glorification of his lineage? Why glorify a line that stems from someone guilty of such acts?

Despite the rejection of rabbinic teachings by Christians, it is well attested by Orthodox rabbis that Isaac married Rebecca when she was three years old. Christians may react strongly to this, but the fact remains that Jesus explicitly glorified the Pharisees; Orthodox rabbis by instructing his followers to observe and obey everything they taught [Matthew 23:1–3]. Theologically, this undermines the Christian dismissal of rabbinic teachings and sayings. By default, Christians must accept the sayings and teaching of the Orthodox rabbis.

Rashi’s commentary on Genesis 25:20 says:

forty years old: For when Abraham came from Mount Moriah, he was informed that Rebecca had been born. Isaac was then thirty-seven years old, for at that time Sarah died, and from the time that Isaac was born until the “Binding” [of Isaac], when Sarah died, were thirty-seven years, for she was ninety years old when Isaac was born, and one hundred and twenty-seven when she died, as it is stated (above 23:1): “The life of Sarah was [a hundred and twenty-seven years.”] This makes Isaac thirty-seven years old, and at that time, Rebecca was born. HE WAITED FOR HER UNTIL SHE WOULD BE FIT FOR MARITAL RELATIONS-THREE YEARS-AND THEN MARRIED HER.— [From Gen. Rabbah 57:1]

Rashi’s calculation goes as follows: Rivkah was married at 3 years, and was 23 years old when she gave birth to Esau and Yaakov. (Daat Zkenim on Genesis 25:20:1)

 

“Isaac was thirty-seven-years old at his binding… When Abraham returned from Mount Moriah, at that very moment Sarah died, and Isaac was then thirty-seven; and at that very time Abraham was told of Rebekah’s birth; THUS WE FIND THAT REBECCA WAS THREE YEARS OLD WHEN SHE MARRIED ISAAC.” (Pesikta Zutrata (Lekah Tov), Gen. 24., Midrashic commentary on the Pentateuch, by Rabbi Tobiah Ben Eliezer)
 

The maiden was very beautiful, a virgin whom no man had known. She went down to the spring, filled her jar, and came up. Genesis 24:16)

 

בתולה, “a virgin;” according to the view that Rivkah was only three years old, the Torah hardly needed to add this detail; the Talmud Niddah 44, explains this by saying that even if she had been violated by someone, her hymen had grown together again, (something that was known to people in those days).

(Commentary Chizkuni, Genesis 24:16:1)

 

 

The Torah itself testifies that Yitzchak was 40 years old when he married Rivkah , which makes Rivkah 3 years old when she was married. (Rabbeinu Bahya, Bereshit 24:67:1)

 

Rabbis unanimously agree that Isaac married Rebecca when she was three years old. This makes it all the more remarkable that the very covenant-bearer, whose promise is fulfilled by Jesus as the Messiah, married a child. Isn’t that something? And yet, Christians constantly celebrate the “everlasting” covenant to Isaac, presenting it as a profound foreshadowing of the Messiah while conveniently ignoring the ethical implications. Ignoring the fact that he married a three year old girl what kind of double standard is this?

 

Critiquing the 7th century using 21st-century standards falls squarely under the fallacy of presentism. Christians don’t need this explained it’s common sense. Just because a modern country sets a legal age for marriage, work, or drinking doesn’t mean that age should have applied universally across time. Consider this, Noah lived 950 years. If we insist that 18 is the legal age for marriage, would it have been wrong for Noah, at 600 years old, to marry an 18 year old woman? Or would we then claim that women had to be at least 400 years old to marry him? Where does such reasoning end?

Ignorance can be corrected, and we are happy to provide education. But if, after being educated, you still insist on the same position, it proves your intention is not dialogue or understanding it is to push an agenda, provoke, and obstruct meaningful discussion. And this is where we draw the line and move on.

Rabbinic sources reveal that both King David and Isaac had child brides. Using the very standards Christians apply to condemn Prophet Muhammad Pbuh, the conclusion is inescapable: “WITHOUT PAEDOPHILES THERE IS NO MESSIAH.” By Christian logic where marrying a six-year-old is enough to earn that label both Isaac and King David qualify. And they didn’t stop there, Isaac married Rebecca at three, and King David married Bathsheba at the same age. If Christian moral criteria are applied consistently, the implications are undeniable.

 

Christians have to accept PAEDOPHILES HAVE MADE WAY FOR THEIR MESSIAH.

 

 

 

 

We “Christians” are the People of the Injeel.

 

And let the People of the Gospel judge by what Allah has revealed therein. And whoever does not judge by what Allah has revealed – then it is those who are the defiantly disobedient. [Surah 5:47]

 

Christians are under the assumption this verse is referring to them. Let us examine this claim.

 

Firstly, the verse explicitly states, "judge by what Allah has revealed." Do Christians believe Allah Swt revealed judgment to Isa As?

 

Secondly, according to the Islamic paradigm, the Injeel contains alongside some rulings the description, advent, and prophecies of Prophet Muhammad Pbuh. Do Christians believe this to be the same Gospel as the one they have?

Thirdly, the Qur’an explicitly states that Isa As was not crucified, that there was no third day resurrection, that he is not the Son of God nor God Himself, and that there is no Trinity thus completely rejecting Christian creedal beliefs. Do Christians still consider themselves to be the People of the Gospel according to the Islamic understanding of the Qur’anic narrative?   

Fourthly, there are significant theological sayings revealed to Isa As :

 

[Jesus] said, "Indeed, I am the servant of Allah. He has given me the Scripture and made me a prophet. [Surah 19:30]

 

They have certainly disbelieved who say, "Allah is the Messiah, the son of Mary" while the Messiah has said, "O Children of Israel, worship Allah, my Lord and your Lord." Indeed, he who associates others with Allah – Allah has forbidden him Paradise, and his refuge is the Fire. And there are not for the wrongdoers any helpers. [Surah 5:72]

 

And [beware the Day] when Allah will say, "O Jesus, Son of Mary, did you say to the people, 'Take me and my mother as deities besides Allah?' " He will say, "Exalted are You! It was not for me to say that to which I have no right. If I had said it, You would have known it. You know what is within myself, and I do not know what is within Yourself. Indeed, it is You who is Knower of the unseen

 

I said not to them except what You commanded me – to worship Allah, my Lord and your Lord. And I was a witness over them as long as I was among them; but when You took me up, You were the Observer over them, and You are, over all things, Witness. [Surah 5:116-117]

Do Christians believe that Jesus is the servant of Allah Swt? Do they also believe that, when questioned, he denied being God and instructed his followers to worship Allah alone without associating any partners with Him, warning that whoever does so will be forbidden from Paradise? According to the Islamic understanding, this would form part of the revelation of the Injeel.

Finally, if Nasara means helpers of Allah Swt that is, by spreading the message of Tawheed (the oneness of Allah, Monotheism) while believing in the Last and Final Messenger, Prophet Muhammad Pbuh, as well as the rulings and judgments given to Isa As from Allah Swt then, by default, one would be considered a Muslim.

Though we know through classical commentators that this verse is referring to the people from the time of Isa As, those who were living during his time. Even if we accepted your interpretation that the verse is referring to you, it would still backfire, and you would have no ground to stand upon, as mentioned a few verses later.

 

Say, "O People of the Scripture, you are [standing] on nothing until you uphold [the law of] the Torah, the Gospel, and what has been revealed to you from your Lord [i.e., the Qur’an]." And that which has been revealed to you from your Lord will surely increase many of them in transgression and disbelief. So do not grieve over the disbelieving people. [Surah 5:68]

 

 

 

Turn to a corrupted book if in doubt?

 

The claim that Surah 10:94 instructs Muslims to consult the People of the Scripture is incorrect. Furthermore, even if someone were to entertain this claim, it would still backfire on them. Let us proceed with the second point and examine how it backfires on them.

 

Christians foolishly claim that the Qur’an explicitly commands Muslims to turn to the People of the Book if they are in doubt. The problem with this claim is that the very Bible Christians want us to turn to admits that it has been corrupted.

 

How do you say, We are wise, and the Torah of the Lord is with us? when, in fact, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie? (Jeremiah 8:8)

 

So is the Qur’an commanding believers to turn to a book that openly declares it has been corrupted? Christians first have to explain why a Muslim would even want to accept a book that has been tampered with by man, let alone accept it as the Word of God.

It is absurd to make such a claim about your book, which itself testifies that it has been corrupted by man, whereas the Qur’an states that it is free from corruption and protected by Allah Swt.

 

Indeed, it is We who sent down the message [i.e., the Qur’an], and indeed, We will be its guardian. [Surah 15:9]

 

Ask yourself this, why would Muslims consult the People of the Scripture, whose scripture has been tampered with? There is absolutely nothing the bible can provide us which we have in the Qur’an and Sunnah. Islam is a perfected religion.

 

“This day I have perfected for you your religion and completed My favor upon you and have approved for you Islam as religion.” [Surah 5:3]

 

A perfected religion has no need for anything outside of what it already contains. Christians must concede to the fact their book has been corrupted and leave not room for anyone to receive guidance from, rather the Qur’an explicitly calls it a book of guidance for mankind.

 

“This is the Book about which there is no doubt, a guidance for those conscious of Allah” [Surah 2:2]

“It was in the month of Ramadan that the Qur’an was revealed as guidance for mankind” [Surah 2:185]

 

The Qur’an is guidance for mankind would it direct Muslims to consult people who have corrupted their own book and harbor enmity and hatred toward them? Does that even make sense logically? Christians need to stop misrepresenting the Qur’an and start realizing that the stupendous claim they make that Muslims should ask them if in doubt is fallacious and carries no weight, instead, it only makes them look foolish.

 

Where is the description the Torah and Injeel?

 

 

Grant us good things in this world and in the life to come. We turn to You.’ God said, ‘I bring My punishment on whoever I will, but My mercy encompasses all things. ‘I shall ordain My mercy for those who are conscious of God and pay the prescribed alms; who believe in Our Revelations; who follow the Messenger– the unlettered  prophet they find described in the Torah that is with them, and in the Gospel– who commands them to do right and forbids them to do wrong, who makes good things lawful to them and bad things unlawful, and relieves them of their burdens, and the iron collars b that were on them. So it is those who believe him, honour and help him, and who follow the light which has been sent down with him, who will succeed.’ [Surah 7:156-157]

 

Christians typically appeal to these verses by claiming that the name of the Prophet Muhammed Pbuh is explicitly mentioned in the Torah and the Gospels. However, when they search for such a reference, they are unable to locate it. The issue lies in a misrepresentation of the verse, arising from a superficial or selective reading of the text. This interpretation assumes that the verse refers to the explicit mention of Muhammed Pbuh name in the Torah and the Gospel, whereas the text does not make such a claim.

 

Ibn al-Qayyim comments on this issue in his tafsīr of Surah 7:157.

“The questioner said: It is famous among you in the Book and the Sunnah that your Prophet was written with them in the Torah and the Gospel, but they erased him from both for the reason of leadership and worldly gain. Reason finds this problematic: did they all agree to erase his name from the revealed books from the Lord of the worlds in the East and West, South and North?! This is a matter that reason finds more problematic than their mere verbal denial; for it is possible to recant what they said with their tongues, but to return to what they have erased is more remote.

 

The Answer: This question is built upon a corrupt understanding, which is that Muslims believe that the Prophet’s ﷺ explicit name—which is Muḥammad in Arabic—is mentioned in the Torah and the Gospel—the two books containing the two laws—and that Muslims believe that the Jews and Christians in all regions of the earth erased that name and omitted it entirely from the churches, and conspired upon that, far and wide, East and West. No scholar from the scholars of the Muslims has said this, nor did Allah, glorified and exalted be He, inform of it in His Book concerning them, nor did His Messenger, nor did he rebuke them for it even for a single day, nor did any of the Companions say it, nor the Imāms after them, nor the scholars of exegesis, nor those concerned with the reports of nations and their histories. If it is assumed that some of the common Muslims said it, intending by it to support the Messenger, it has been said: "An ignorant friend causes more harm than an intelligent enemy." These people were only afflicted by a lack of understanding of the Qurʾān, and they thought that the statement of the Exalted: "Those who follow the Messenger, the Unlettered Prophet, whom they find written with them in the Torah and the Gospel" [al-Aʿrāf: 157] indicated the specific name in Arabic in the specific Torah and Gospel, and that such was not found at all.”

 

From the above verse and commentary by Ibn al-Qayyim the word “name” is not used in the ayah thus, the Christian argument falls flat on his face. Ibn al-Qayyim also writes as to why the mentioning of name is not significant.

 

Now that we’ve cleared the name claim, let us move on to next claim, “where is the “description” of Prophet Muhmmed Pbuh found in the bible? The answer to this also found in the Qur’an.

 

“God took a pledge from the Children of Israel. We made twelve leaders arise among them, and God said, ‘I am with you: if you keep up the prayer, pay the prescribed alms, believe in My messengers and support them, and lend God a good loan, a I will wipe out your sins and admit you into Gardens graced with flowing streams. Any of you who now ignore this [pledge] will be far from the right path.’

 

But they broke their pledge, so We distanced them [from Us] and hardened their hearts. They distort the meaning of [revealed] words and have forgotten some of what they were told to remember: you [Prophet] will always find treachery in all but a few of them. Overlook this and pardon them: God loves those who do good.

 

We also took a pledge from those who say, ‘We are Christians,’ but they too forgot some of what they were told to remember, so We stirred up enmity and hatred among them until the Day of Resurrection, when God will tell them what they have done.”

[Surah 5:12:14]

 

They have no grasp of God’s true measure when they say, ‘God has sent nothing down to a mere mortal.’ Say, ‘Who was it who sent down the Scripture, which Moses brought as a light and a guide to people, which you made into separate sheets, showing some but hiding many? You were taught things that neither you nor your forefathers had known.’ Say, ‘God [sent it down],’ then leave them engrossed in their vain talk. [Surah 6:91]

 

The verses mentioned above help clarify the meaning of Surah 7:157. This becomes clearer in Surah 5:12–14, which speaks about the covenant made with the Children of Israel and the Christians, and how they broke that covenant by neglecting or “forgetting” parts of what they were commanded to uphold. The threw the book of Allah behind their backs Surah 3:187.

 

They also took their rabbis and monks as lords besides Allah (Surah 9:31), disregarding the laws that had been given to them and seeking loopholes to evade them.

 

What, then, did they forget? According to Tafsīr al-Jalalayn, they forgot the description, the advent, and the prophecies concerning the Prophet Muhammed Pbuh.

 

The Jews dismissed what was revealed to them concerning the Prophet Muhammed Pbuh and rejected the message of the prophets that had been transmitted to them. Surah 6:91 also refers to the actions of the Jews, noting their handling of scripture specifically the revelation given to Moses Pbuh at Mount Sinai. The verse describes how portions of the revelation were made public while much of it was concealed.

 

Surah 2:79 describes how some of the Jews wrote the scripture with their own hands and claimed it was a revelation from God, seeking only a small gain in return. Surah 3:78 notes that they attribute to Allah  a book which was not from Him. Surah 4:46 explains how they distort words with their tongues, and Surah 7:162 records how they altered the words of the revelation that had been communicated to them.

 

Yet the Quran clearly inform the Jews and Christians, that the Messenger of Allah, Prophet Muhammed Pbuh came with the truth and to reveal what they were hiding.

 

O People of the Scripture, there has come to you Our Messenger making clear to you much of what you used to conceal of the Scripture and overlooking much. There has come to you from Allah a light and a clear Book.[Quran 5:15]

 

The believers mentioned in Surah 7:157 namely, the reverts are those who possessed the description of the final Messenger, Prophet Muhammed Pbuh, as it was known to them from the Torah and the Gospel (Injīl). This knowledge, whether passed down to them or preserved in part, enabled them to recognize the True Messenger Pbuh.

 

What many Christians fail to recognize is that the description of Prophet Muhammed Pbuh is mentioned in the very verses they cite in their search for him.

 

who follow the Messenger– the unlettered  prophet they find described in the Torah that is with them, and in the Gospel– who commands them to do right and forbids them to do wrong, who makes good things lawful to them and bad things unlawful, and relieves them of their burdens, and the iron collars b that were on them. So it is those who believe him, honour and help him, and who follow the light which has been sent down with him, who will succeed.’ [Surah 7:156-157]

 

The following hadith attests to this.

 

Ibn Saʿd, al-Bukhārī, Ibn Jarīr, and al-Bayhaqī in al-Dalāʾil narrated from ʿAṭāʾ ibn Yasār: I met ʿAbdullāh ibn ʿAmr ibn al-ʿĀṣ and said: "Inform me of the description of the Messenger of Allah ﷺ." He said: "Yes, by Allah, he is certainly described in the Torah with some of his description in the Qurʾān: 'O Prophet, indeed We have sent you as a witness, a bringer of glad tidings, a warner, and a protection for the unlettered. You are My servant and My Messenger; I have named you the Trusting (al-Mutawakkil). He is neither coarse, nor harsh, nor a shouter in the markets. He does not repay evil with evil, but rather he pardons and overlooks. Allah will not take him [in death] until He straightens through him the crooked creed by their saying: "There is no god but Allah," and opens through him blind eyes, deaf ears, and wrapped hearts.'"

 

The description itself serves as the proof. Let us break it down. Surah 7:157 affirms the Prophethood of Muhammed Pbuh as mentioned in the previous scriptures, the  scriptures that both Jews and Christians neglected, rejected, concealed, or altered, as they were admonished for. Christians must consider this: if the description of Prophet Muhammed Pbuh is truly absent from their books, then how can they claim to possess the authentic revelation given to the earlier prophets?

 

 

 

“Would you marry off your daughter if she were six years old?”

 

That question assumes modern legal and moral frameworks can be directly imposed on 7th-century Arabia, which is a basic historical error known as presentism. No serious historian evaluates ancient figures using contemporary social norms. If we do that consistently, then many biblical figures whose marriages occurred at similarly young ages would also be morally condemned, which most Christians reject. Academic analysis instead asks whether an action was considered ethical, consensual, and socially normative within its historical context.

 

This is an example of presentism judging pre-modern societies by modern standards. Historians don’t do that. This is an established academic principle used in history, ethics, and anthropology.

 

In the ancient world Arabia, Byzantium, Persia, and even biblical Israel marriage was linked to puberty and social responsibility, not a fixed numerical age. This was true across cultures, including Christian societies until very recently. Be mindful we are explaining, not defending modern child marriage.

 

This practice was not unique to Islam. If we apply your logic consistently, would you be willing to condemn biblical figures such as Isaac, Rebecca, Mary (mother of Jesus), or medieval Christian kings who married young? If not, then the objection is selective rather than principled.

 

Islamic law does not treat historical norms as timeless commands. Contemporary Muslim scholars overwhelmingly reject child marriage because Islamic ethics prioritize harm prevention and social welfare, which clearly require maturity and consent today. Islam is morally dynamic, not frozen in the past.

 

So, the real question isn’t “Would you do this today?” because no serious Muslim scholar argues for that. The real question is whether it’s intellectually honest to mock a 7th-century figure using 21st-century assumptions while exempting one’s own tradition from the same scrutiny.

Tablets + Laws = Torah

 

The revelation granted to Musa (AS) on Mount Sinai, as referenced in Surah 7:144–145, was delivered in the form of Al-Wah (tablets/stones). The inscriptions engraved upon these tablets constituted the Torah, encompassing laws, doctrines, and divine instructions.     

 

The tablets/stones are the form, and the inscriptions are the laws; together, they combine as one Torah.

 

Thus, the tablets/stones represent the physical medium of revelation, while the inscriptions represent its legislative and doctrinal content; together, they collectively constitute a single, unified Torah.

 

It was narrated that 'Amr bin Dinar heard Tawus say:

 

"I heard Abu Hurairah narrating that the Prophet (ﷺ) said: 'Adam and Musa debated, and Musa said to him: "O Adam, you are our father but have deprived us and caused us to be expelled from Paradise because of your sin." Adam said to him: "O Musa, Allah chose you to speak with, and he wrote the Tawrah for you with His own Hand. Are you blaming me for something which Allah decreed for me forty years before He created me?" Thus Adam won the argument with Musa, thus Adam won the argument with Musa.'"

 

 [Sunan Ibn Majah 80]

 

“And He wrote the Tawrah for you with His own Hand” (وَخَطَّ لَكَ التَّوْرَاةَ بِيَدِهِ).

 

Conclusion:

 

In the Islamic paradigm, the Torah refers to the divinely revealed laws, instructions, and doctrines inscribed upon the Tablet as a form of revelation. It is neither a biography of Musa (AS) nor identical to the five books traditionally attributed to him. Rather, the Torah consists of the legislations revealed to Musa (AS) as guidance and light for the Children of Israel, as affirmed in Surah 5:44–46.

 

There is no theological compromise with Jewish or Christian interpretations on this matter. The Torah, in the Islamic understanding, is not the collection of five books attributed to Moses commonly referred to as the Pentateuch or Chumash.

 

Note: the rabbis confirm Moses received the entire Torah on Mount Sinai

The true God whom Christians are avoiding.

We know also that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him who is true. And we are in him who is true by being in his Son Jesus Christ. He is the true God and eternal life. [1John 5:20]

 

Christians are putting their own twist on the above verse assuming its states Jesus is the true God. The problem is, the gospel according to john has already clarified who the true God is through the lips of Jesus.

 

Now this is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent. [John 17:3]

 

Note that the phrase “only true God” refers to the one who is God, and not to Jesus, as He clearly distances Himself from being identified as that one true God.

 

That is one way of showing Jesus is not the only true God. The other way is, using basic rules of English grammar.

 

We know also that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him who is true. And we are in him who is true by being in his Son Jesus Christ. He is the true God and eternal life. [1 John 5:20]

 

In this context, both “him” and “He” represent different grammatical cases accusative and nominative, respectively. “Him” is the accusative pronoun, functioning as the direct object of the verb, while “He” is in the nominative case, identifying the subject of the clause. Therefore, the phrase “the only true God” appears in the genitive case, indicating possession or close association.

 

In 1 John 5:20, the pronouns “He” and “Him” grammatically refer to the same subject the one described as “true” and this subject is distinct from Jesus, who is referred to separately as “His Son, Jesus Christ.” Therefore, Jesus is not the antecedent of the final statement, “He is the true God and eternal life.”

 

This grammatical rule follows the same pattern as in John 17:3. In both passages, the one referred to as “the true God” is grammatically and contextually distinguished from Jesus Christ, who is mentioned separately. Therefore, in each case, “the true God” refers specifically to God the Father, not to Jesus.

 

 "That they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent"

 

Grammatically in Koine Greek, the structure is more precise. The phrase "the only true God" is in the accusative case (τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν Θεόν), because it’s the object of the verb “to know” (γινώσκωσιν). Jesus is naming the Father* as the one true God, and placing Himself (Jesus) in a separate category.

 

It’s a shame Christians distort their own text for the sake of winning a theological argument. Such dishonestly only reveals the true nature of their deceptive agenda and motive on where they stand.

 

 

Wrong end of the stick

 

 Christians got the wrong end of the stick. The idea they believe the Qur’an confirms their bible shows they lack in basic Islamic understanding of previous scriptures.

 

Christians have misunderstood the matter. The belief that the Qur’an affirms the authenticity of their Bible reflects a fundamental lack of understanding of the Islamic perspective on previous scriptures.

 

The issue lies in the fact that many Christians make assumptions based on what they read, without possessing certain or contextual knowledge. When the Qur’an mentions the Injeel i.e., the Gospel, they automatically assume it refers to the four canonised books of the New Testament.

 

The Islamic position on the understanding of the Injeel is that it contains the description and prophecy of the advent of Prophet Muhammad Pbuh. Surah 61:6 confirms this:

 

“And [mention] when Jesus, the son of Mary, said, "O Children of Israel, indeed I am the messenger of Allah to you confirming what came before me of the Torah and bringing good tidings of a messenger to come after me, whose name is Ahmed." But when he came to them with clear evidences, they said, "This is obvious magic.”

 

 

It is noteworthy that the verse explicitly mentions the name of Prophet Muhammad Pbuh  'Ahmed'  as the Messenger who is to come. This reference pertains to the Injeel, which is described using the term mubashiran (مُبَشِّرًۢا), meaning 'good news' or 'glad tidings.' Accordingly, the Islamic perspective holds that the Injeel contains the prophecy of the coming of Prophet Muhammad (PBUH), rather than being centered on Jesus (PBUH) himself. It is understood that the Injeel was revealed to Jesus (PBUH) for the purpose of conveying to the Children of Israel the announcement of the forthcoming Prophet Muhammad Pbuh. This interpretation provides clarity on the Islamic understanding of the Injeel’s message.

 

On the contrary the four Gospels, written by unknown authors, detail the life and message of Jesus Christ, who spoke of the Kingdom of Heaven. Jesus is the main focus of all four books. Each Gospel offers a unique perspective, all focus on Jesus as the Messiah and Son of God, forming the foundation of the Christian faith. The Christian position is clear, the Gospels they believe in contain no prophecies about the coming of the last and final Messenger, Prophet Muhammad Pbuh.

 

 

The issue with Christians is that they are conflating two different things. The Injeel mentioned in the Qur’an refers to the good news given to Prophet Muhammad Pbuh, whereas the Gospels followed by Christians are based on the life and teachings of Jesus. The two are not the same; thus, Christians have a significant misunderstanding of the Injeel, assuming it is their book when it clearly is not.

 

Calling it an "Islamic dilemma" is ludicrous. The fact that many Christians don’t even understand what the Injeel is according to the Islamic paradigm shows that their argument is based on a false premise. How can there be a dilemma when the subject i.e. the Injeel has nothing to do with the Christian Gospels? How can the two be compared as if they refer to the same thing?

 

We must make the distinction that the two scriptures are not the same. One is divine revelation the Injeel the other is manmade the Gospels. The story of Jesus’s life is different from the revelation given to him. Christians take his life story as the revelation itself, which is not the Islamic position.

 

The Qur'an distinguishes between Jesus’ true followers and later Christians, implying that the beliefs of historical Christianity diverged from the original message of Jesus further showing that the Qur'an does not affirm the Bible in its developed theological form.

 

The Injeel was a supplement to the mission of Jesus, calling the Children of Israel to account for their actions, guiding them back to Tawhid (monotheism), and giving them the glad tidings of the coming of Prophet Muhammad Pbuh.

 

The Injeel is not the Gospels, nor are the Gospels the Injeel. The two should not be conflated. This misunderstanding presents a dilemma for Christians.