Friday, 7 July 2017

Jesus altered the texts of Isaiah


 It’s something laughable when Christians claim that the Bible is 100% intact, and no alterations have ever been made. They go as far as quoting this verse to prove their point:

Do not add to what I command you and do not subtract from it, but keep the commands of the LORD your God that I give you. (Deuteronomy 4:2)

Well here’s the joke, what would you say if we told you that Jesus himself altered the text?  hard to believe right, well we have evidence from the New testament where Jesus altered the text. If we go to the Book of Luke on chapter 4 verse 16 &17 it reads:

And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up: and, as his custom was, he went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and stood up to read. And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Isaiah. And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written, (Luke 4:16-17)

Here we read Jesus went inside a synagogue on a sabbath day, stood up and read from the scroll of Isaiah. The next few verses tell us what Jesus read:

The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, (Luke 4:18)

Jesus read a verse from the Book of Isaiah chapter 61 verse 1. It would seem without doubt he read from the ancient scrolls, which would have been preserved by the orthodox rabbis. Just to be on the safe side let’s compare Jesus’s reading with the Hebrew Bible, and see if they really line up word for word.

The Spirit of the Lord GOD is on Me, because the LORD has anointed Me to bring good news to the poor. He has sent Me to heal the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and freedom to the prisoners; to proclaim the year of the LORD's favor, and the day of our God's vengeance; to comfort all who mourn (Isaiah 61:1)


If you compare the two passages side by side you’ll notice one thing added and one thing removed. Jesus added “and recovery of sight to the blind” and removed “and the day of our God’s vengeance.” Luke tells us,  Luke 4:16-17 He came to Nazareth, where He had been brought up. As usual, He entered the synagogue on the Sabbath day and stood up to read. (17) The scroll of the prophet Isaiah was given to Him, and unrolling the scroll, He found the place where it was written: We’re not really given the option of saying that Jesus was roughly paraphrasing because He actually took the scroll and turned to the passage, implying that he read it. When he quit, he rolled up the scroll, gave it back to the attendant, and sat down (v. 20). Of course He could have turned to it and then simply looked up and spoke from memory. I’m sure He had most, if not all, of the Scriptures memorized at this point in His life. However, if we say that, there are two problems. One is that we are making an unnatural assumption. Jesus took the book, opened to the right page and then didn’t read it? That doesn’t seem right. 

Second, we’d be saying that Jesus’ memory did not stand up to the test and He misquoted the Scriptures!  In case you’re wondering, these differences are reflected in the Greek and Hebrew texts as well so it’s not a modern translational error.

Now you have two options to choose from. Could it be the scroll Jesus was given to read was corrupted, or that Jesus himself corrupted the text? It seem more likely from the New Testament, that Jesus of the Bible altered and added his own word to scriptures. Which means he went against the command of Yahweh, as found in Deuteronomy 4:2


What do you make of this discrepancy? The discrepancy is obviously there in the bible so we can’t ignore it or pretend there’s no problem there.

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Altered verse
So Moses took his wife and sons, mounted them on an ass, and went back to the land of Egypt; and Moses took the rod of God with him. (Exodus 4:20)
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Talmud
They also altered the verse: “For in their anger they slew a man and in their self-will they slaughtered an ox” (Genesis 49:6), to read: For in their anger they slew an ox and in their self-will they uprooted a trough, to avoid the charge that Jacob’s sons were murderers. Instead of: “And Moses took his wife and his sons, and set them upon a donkey” (Exodus 4:20), they wrote: And Moses took his wife and his sons, and set them upon a carrier of people, which could be understood as referring to a horse or a camel rather than the lowly donkey. (Talmud Megillah 9a:15)
Josef Bonfils commentary (14th century scholar)
And if you suggest: ‘They changed words but they didn’t add any’ here is a response: Look at the verse (Exod. 4:20): “And he (Moses) placed them on a donkey,” which they translated as “on a transporter of people” – two Hebrew words in place of one word. Similarly, “the hare” they translated as “the short-legged [one].” If one were to retort: They did this to avoid offending the Romans – who gave them the right to change, add or subtract out of fear of the king? And if the king ever learned our language and saw that we had changed [words], this would have been a public shaming of God? Do not our Rabbis say (b. Sanhedrin 74a): “In a situation of desecration of God’s name one should allow oneself to be killed and avoid the violation”?!

DIVORCE A PUNISHMENT FOR WOMEN.

Another situation Christians fall into. we read from the Bible, the supposed inspired words of God, two different legal approach when divorcing one’s wife. Let’s us first read the two rulings given in each book, i.e. the Old Testament and New Testament, before we make any commentary.

"Suppose a man marries a woman but she does not please him. Having discovered something wrong with her, he writes her a letter of divorce, hands it to her, and sends her away from his house. (Deuteronomy 24:1)

"It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.' But I say that a man who divorces his wife, unless she has been unfaithful, causes her to commit adultery. And anyone who marries a divorced woman also commits adultery. (Matthew 5:31-32)

Now reading the above two rulings seems to contradict each other. It is clear from the Book of Deuteronomy, if a man marries a woman who later doesn’t please him, then he can give her a letter of divorce and send her away. Here’s a commentary found in the Jewish oral Law :
Talmud
A man may divorce his wife if she has merely spoiled a dish for him, He may also divorce her even if he simply finds another woman more beautiful than she" (Gittin 90a-b).

This is very interesting, if a wife merely spoils the dish of her husband, then he can divorce her. For a Jew, this is God’s command to his people. No Jew will reject or challenge such a command from his Lord. Let’s move on to the New Testament, the supposed sayings of Jesus. It is unclear why Jesus of the Bible would make such an abrogation to the Law of Moses, since Christians don’t believe in abrogation. What’s worse the Jews who favour the Tanach (Old Testament) would never take the words of Jesus over Yahweh.

The Old Testament is clear the commands of Yahweh must remain and never changed.

"Be strong and very courageous. Be careful to obey all the law my servant Moses gave you; do not turn from it to the right or to the left, that you may be successful wherever you go. Keep this Book of the Law always on your lips; meditate on it day and night, so that you may be careful to do everything written in it. Then you will be prosperous and successful. (Joshua 1:7-8)


And now, Israel, what does the Lord your God ask of you but to fear the Lord your God, to walk in obedience to him, to love him, to serve the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul, and to observe the Lord’s commands and decrees that I am giving you today for your own good? (Deuteronomy 10:12-13)

These commandments that I give you today are to be on your hearts. Impress them on your children. Talk about them when you sit at home and when you walk along the road, when you lie down and when you get up. (Deuteronomy 6:6-7)

For I command you today to love the Lord your God, to walk in obedience to him, and to keep his commands, decrees and laws; then you will live and increase, and the Lord your God will bless you in the land you are entering to possess. (Deuteronomy 30:16)

As we can read the God of the Old Testament made it explicit that his commandments must be kept no matter what.  Now here’s an interesting command which really shatters the New Testament abrogation.

You shall not add to the word which I am commanding you, nor take away from it, that you may keep the commandments of the Lord your God which I command you. (Deuteronomy 4:2)

You shall not add anything to the commandment God has made clear to the children of Israel. It is crystal clear Jesus of the Bible added his own commandment to the Law of Moses. Notice how Jesus say’s

"It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.' But I say that a man who divorces his wife, unless she has been unfaithful, causes her to commit adultery. And anyone who marries a divorced woman also commits adultery. (Mark 5:31-32)

It seems like Jesus wasn’t to keen about who gave that commandment in the first place. "It has been said” is not a respectable way to address the Jews, who believe it was God Almighty who gave that specific command. Let’s dwell a little deeper with the supposed saying of Jesus. If any man divorces his wife unless she has been unfaithful, causes her to commit adultery. There are many problems with this saying. What if the woman is under constant hardship from her husband, he mistreats her, doesn’t show her love or care for her, is she not allowed to leave such a man. What about if the man beats her every day, does not fulfil her desires, is she not allowed to divorce such man.

There are hundreds if not thousands of cases, where women are subjugated by their husband. They are abused and treated worse than animals. Now if we were to take this ruling by Jesus then we would have a severe problem with un-happy married couples. The oppression the women would feel would led her to commit suicide, which the Bible is silent upon. Those supposed teachings of Jesus have no room in a real marriage situation.  What about is the women hits her husband and does not love him anymore, what if she refuses to have intimacy with him is he allowed to divorce or not. According to the saying of Jesus no the man must suffer just like the woman.

Another crucial point to touch upon is, what if the woman rejects Christianity and becomes a pagan, Is the man still allowed to divorce her yes or no? can you live with a woman who rejects you God and openly worships another. The Old Testament is clear they should be killed.

 If your very own brother, or your son or daughter, or the wife you love, or your closest friend secretly entices you, saying, “Let us go and worship other gods” (gods that neither you nor your ancestors have known, gods of the peoples around you, whether near or far, from one end of the land to the other), do not yield to them or listen to them. Show them no pity. Do not spare them or shield them. You must certainly put them to death. (Deuteronomy 13:6-9)

This brings us to our ultimate point, it is clear from the New Testament that you cannot divorce you wife unless she has committed adultery. it does not say you can’t beat her, I  have written couple of article on this subject,  Here’s a link to those articles http://mustafa-apologist.blogspot.co.uk/2016/09/big-dilemma-for-david-wood.html   & http://mustafa-apologist.blogspot.co.uk/2017/02/man-takes-precedence-over-his-wife.html.
As ive mentioned the New Testament does not prohibit the man from beating his wife, rather it focuses on the ruling of divorce. One may ask what is the ruling on, if ones wife turns to a pagan, are we allowed to divorce them or still remain with them? Well to be honest the Bible i.e. the New Testament is silent on this topic. Paul does give his own opinion:

Now, I will speak to the rest of you, though I do not have a direct command from the Lord. If a Christian man has a wife who is not a believer and she is willing to continue living with him, he must not leave her. (1 Corinthians 7:12)

Notice how Paul made it clear that he did not get any direct command from the lord, rather gave his own opinion on this issue.  To understand this further let’s refer to Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible commentary :


if any brother hath a wife that believeth not; that is, if any man who is now a brother, one called by the grace of God, and is in church fellowship, has a wife to whom he was married whilst in a state of unregeneracy and infidelity; who is as she was when he married her, entirely destitute of faith in Christ; not one that is weak in the faith, or only makes an outward profession, but that has no faith at all in Christ, nor in his Gospel, not so much as an historical one; who disbelieves, denies, and rejects, the truths of the Gospel: 

from above commentary we read, that if a man whilst an unbeliever was married and then converted to Christianity, should remain with his wife. Not that he should marry a unbeliever. Nor does it say what should happened if both were believers in Christ and one denounced their faith and became a pagan. Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges commentary also understands it the same way.  Well saying that there is something in the Bible i.e. New Testament which does shed some light to what should be done to a wife if she becomes a pagan.

If then you have been raised with Christ, seek the things that are above, where Christ is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on things that are above, not on things that are on earth. For you have died, and your life is hidden with Christ in God. When Christ who is your life appears, then you also will appear with him in glory. Put to death therefore what is earthly in you sexual immorality, impurity, passion, evil desire, and covetousness, which is idolatry. (Colossians 3:1-5)

After explaining who Christ is to a believer, Paul doesn’t hesitate to preach with full force on how to make yourself perfect for the sake of Christ. One of the condition Paul puts to a believer is, to put death all that is earthy within yourself. Now one may wonder how does this apply on a wife who is a pagan or unbeliever? It does. We read from the Bible both Old and New Testament

For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh. (Genesis 2:24)

“But at the beginning of creation God ‘made them male and female.’ ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh.’ So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.” (Mark 10:6-9)

As you can see according to both Books of the Bible, husband and wife become but one flesh. They are joined together, both dwelling inside each other. If this is to be taken metaphorically in a spiritual way then Colossians 3:5 fit in perfectly with it.  Colossians tells us put to death what is earthly in you sexual immorality, impurity, passion, evil desire, and covetousness, which is idolatry.  
Put to death anything earthy in you, your wife who is part of you as one flesh is earthy. Your passions, sexual desires for her are earthy. Your wife who is a pagan is also earthly which means you should kill her.

So to sum it all up we can conclude from the Old & New Testament, that if you have a wife who rejects your faith i.e. Judaism or Christianity then you are allowed to kill her. Gruesome as it may sound but law is law. Old Testament is clear on killing you wife or any family member if they worship another God, as found in Deuteronomy 13, and the New Testament is clear if you have a wife who turns to a pagan and rejects your faith then you are also allowed to kill her as found in Colossians 3.




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Divorce


Some Pharisees came to him to test him. They asked, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any and every reason?” “Haven’t you read,” he replied, “that at the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female,’ and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh’ ? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.” “Why then,” they asked, “did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?” Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.” (Matthew 19:3-9)

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The above Passage which abrogates a law from the Old Testament has more to it than you may think. Interestingly, Jesus of the New Testament clearly tells the Pharisees that one of the Mizvot which Jews thought was part of the “613 laws” was actually a command by Moses.

In verse 8 we read Jesus saying “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning."

MOSES PERMITTED YOU TO DIVORCE YOUR WIVES? How could this be when this command is part of the 613 laws commanded by Yahweh himself?

If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him because he finds something indecent about her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, (Deuteronomy 24:1)


According to Jesus, Moses himself permitted this law, which somehow became part of the 613 laws that was spoken by Yahweh. This seems to create a problem when it comes to the law of God as he states all his statues and laws must be obeyed. Jesus goes one to say it’s because of their hard hearts Moses commanded such a ruling.  One wonders what other laws of Moses has blended in with the 613 laws? This shows the Torah laws are from Man and God mixed

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