Recently in a conversation with Br. Ijaz Ahmad he brought to my attention an issue regarding 1 John 2:22. This obviously isn't new information for Biblical scholars or students of textual criticism. It's good timing to examine this passage since it was mentioned prominently in the debate between Mr. Claus and Br. Aqil on the topic of, "Is the Prophet Muhammed Pbuh Prophesied in the Bible". Mr. Claus raised an argument quoting 1 John 2:22, where he indicated that this verse applies to the Prophet of Islam Pbuh. I questioned Br. Ijaz about this when he was advising me on apologetics methods. Even though Br. Ijaz was unable to contribute his personal opinion on the debate as he was the moderator, I asked him about 1 John 2:22 :
"Who is the liar? It is whoever denies that Jesus is the Christ. Such a person is the antichrist--denying the Father and the Son." - 1 John 2:22.
I was shown actual textual evidence regarding 1 John 2:22: Manuscript GA 023
(Note: A correction was made by Br. Ijaz, the word Sinopensis was incorrect).
For verse 22, everything in this verse, after, "Who is the liar, if not one denying that Jesus is..." is missing. It does not contain, "Such a person is the antichrist--denying the Father and the Son."
The above manuscript greatly affects the claim made by Mr. Claus who stuck to the idea that this verse applies to the Prophet of Islam Pbuh, if one is looking at the earliest textual evidence of this verse.
For the record GA 023 has folios dating between ~300 CE and 600 CE, this folio (page) falls into the earlier period of ~300 CE. This is the earliest manuscript of 1 John we have. It is missing the phrase after, "Who is the liar".
In short 1 John 2:22 has missing words after, "Who is the liar," and a partial text until, "Jesus is". The words, "Such a person is the antichrist--denying the Father and the Son," are later additions to later manuscripts.
I advise my Christian friends to not use this verse as their shield in the future, as this is only going to backfire on them. I would like to thank Br. Ijaz Ahmad for giving me this information.
According to the New Testament Moses is the Antichrist
Jesus was never mentioned by Moses by name, nor did Moses accept Jesus as "Christ the Messiah". Let's go to 1 john 2:22 and use its criteria to identify who is the Antichrist
Who is the liar? It is whoever denies that Jesus is the Christ. Such a person is the Antichrist--denying the Father and the Son. (1 John 2:22)
Doesn't this show that Moses of the Bible was the Antichrist for denying Jesus as the Christ. If you disagree please show us where Jesus was called the messiah by name in the Torah. think about it if Moses really did mention Jesus by name or call him the Messiah allegorically, why then don't we find any such explanation of this allegorical saying interpreted by Jewish rabbis in any of their classical writing's throughout history?
there are no early writings from Jewish rabbis regarding Jesus being mentioned by Moses. the Talmud/ Mishna make no mention of Jesus being the Messiah. No orthodox Jew ever made mention of Jesus being the son of God, or said Moses said the son of God will be the Messiah.
Then he said, "When I was with you before, I told you that everything written about me in the law of Moses and the prophets and in the Psalms must be fulfilled." (Luke 24:44)
Jesus even said Moses spoke everything about him, so where do we find the explicit mention of Jesus by name in the Torah by Moses or any other Prophets per say?
If Moses was unaware of Jesus, then we can conclude using 1 John 2:22 he was the Antichrist.
Now, there is a way out from this Christians? All they have to do is, admit the Torah they have has been corrupted/altered by those evil rabbis, who took the name of Jesus out. Which probably would make more sense, rather than twisting their text and trying to find a name which isn't in there in the first place.
One wonders if the Jews would accept such absurdity from Christians for admitting their so called saviours name being erased?