Before Jesus even started to heal an angel would come and heal people?

For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had. (John 5:4)

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The above passage puts Christians into a serious problem.! We are told that an Angels would come down on certain season to a pool of water and heal those who were in need??... So what makes Jesus of the bible having  such a miracle of healing so special  when an Angel came from the heavens which john seems to record in his book??

Also how comes none of the Synoptics mentioned of such A Miraculous event that took place on certain occasion. Which Jewish books made mention of is event did they also see the Angel come down?????? 

Not a single shred evidence is found in any Jewish writerings, ANOTHER MADE UP LIE BY JOHN let's find out more by comparing the NIV & KJV

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“3Here a great number of disabled people used to lie—the blind, the lame, the paralyzed. 5One who was there had been an invalid for thirty-eight years.” (John 5:3-5 NIV)

                                                    Compare with 

“In these lay a great multitude of impotent folk, of blind, halt, withered, waiting for the moving of the water. 4For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had. 5And a certain man was there, which had an infirmity thirty and eight years.”  (John 5:3-5 KJV)

What happened to verse 4? The KJV decided to include it because it was in the manuscripts they had at their disposal. The NIV decided to omit it because in the 400 years since the KJV was translated much older manuscripts had surfaced that did not have that verse. Remember, the KJV was translated largely from the Textus Receptus which was a compilation of manuscripts that did not even date prior to 1100 AD. The NIV translation committee had access to manuscripts dating back within 150 years of the original documents of the New Testament.

What happened in the 800 years between the texts the NIV is based on and the texts the KJV is based on? Copying, copying, and more copying. Often a copyist would write an explanation in the margin and some times that explanation would end up in the text. Bruce Metzger (Text of the New Testament, 194) thinks that is exactly what happened in the case of John 5:4. Why? For several reasons (listed in Metzger’s textual commentary 3rd ed, 209):