Jesus altered the texts of Isaiah

 It’s something laughable when Christians claim that the Bible is 100% intact, and no alterations have ever been made. They go as far as quoting this verse to prove their point:

Do not add to what I command you and do not subtract from it, but keep the commands of the LORD your God that I give you. (Deuteronomy 4:2)

Well here’s the joke, what would you say if we told you that Jesus himself altered the text?  hard to believe right, well we have evidence from the New testament where Jesus altered the text. If we go to the Book of Luke on chapter 4 verse 16 &17 it reads:

And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up: and, as his custom was, he went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and stood up to read. And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Isaiah. And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written, (Luke 4:16-17)

Here we read Jesus went inside a synagogue on a sabbath day, stood up and read from the scroll of Isaiah. The next few verses tell us what Jesus read:

The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, (Luke 4:18)

Jesus read a verse from the Book of Isaiah chapter 61 verse 1. It would seem without doubt he read from the ancient scrolls, which would have been preserved by the orthodox rabbis. Just to be on the safe side let’s compare Jesus’s reading with the Hebrew Bible, and see if they really line up word for word.

The Spirit of the Lord GOD is on Me, because the LORD has anointed Me to bring good news to the poor. He has sent Me to heal the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and freedom to the prisoners; to proclaim the year of the LORD's favor, and the day of our God's vengeance; to comfort all who mourn (Isaiah 61:1)

If you compare the two passages side by side you’ll notice one thing added and one thing removed. Jesus added “and recovery of sight to the blind” and removed “and the day of our God’s vengeance.” Luke tells us,  Luke 4:16-17 He came to Nazareth, where He had been brought up. As usual, He entered the synagogue on the Sabbath day and stood up to read. (17) The scroll of the prophet Isaiah was given to Him, and unrolling the scroll, He found the place where it was written: We’re not really given the option of saying that Jesus was roughly paraphrasing because He actually took the scroll and turned to the passage, implying that he read it. When he quit, he rolled up the scroll, gave it back to the attendant, and sat down (v. 20). Of course He could have turned to it and then simply looked up and spoke from memory. I’m sure He had most, if not all, of the Scriptures memorized at this point in His life. However, if we say that, there are two problems. One is that we are making an unnatural assumption. Jesus took the book, opened to the right page and then didn’t read it? That doesn’t seem right. 

Second, we’d be saying that Jesus’ memory did not stand up to the test and He misquoted the Scriptures!  In case you’re wondering, these differences are reflected in the Greek and Hebrew texts as well so it’s not a modern translational error.

Now you have two options to choose from. Could it be the scroll Jesus was given to read was corrupted, or that Jesus himself corrupted the text? It seem more likely from the New Testament, that Jesus of the Bible altered and added his own word to scriptures. Which means he went against the command of Yahweh, as found in Deuteronomy 4:2

What do you make of this discrepancy? The discrepancy is obviously there in the bible so we can’t ignore it or pretend there’s no problem there.

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Altered verse

So Moses took his wife and sons, mounted them on an ass, and went back to the land of Egypt; and Moses took the rod of God with him. (Exodus 4:20)

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Talmud

They also altered the verse: “For in their anger they slew a man and in their self-will they slaughtered an ox” (Genesis 49:6), to read: For in their anger they slew an ox and in their self-will they uprooted a trough, to avoid the charge that Jacob’s sons were murderers. Instead of: “And Moses took his wife and his sons, and set them upon a donkey” (Exodus 4:20), they wrote: And Moses took his wife and his sons, and set them upon a carrier of people, which could be understood as referring to a horse or a camel rather than the lowly donkey. (Talmud Megillah 9a:15)

Josef Bonfils commentary (14th century scholar)

And if you suggest: ‘They changed words but they didn’t add any’ here is a response: Look at the verse (Exod. 4:20): “And he (Moses) placed them on a donkey,” which they translated as “on a transporter of people” – two Hebrew words in place of one word. Similarly, “the hare” they translated as “the short-legged [one].” If one were to retort: They did this to avoid offending the Romans – who gave them the right to change, add or subtract out of fear of the king? And if the king ever learned our language and saw that we had changed [words], this would have been a public shaming of God? Do not our Rabbis say (b. Sanhedrin 74a): “In a situation of desecration of God’s name one should allow oneself to be killed and avoid the violation”?!