Saturday, 5 November 2016

who was the father of Josephs?

                                       
                                      ( Joseph's father is Jacob (Matthew 1:16)


                                        ------------ Contradiction ----------------- 


                                           Joseph's father is Heli (Luke 3:23)




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According to Matthew 1:16 Joseph's father is Jacob? But when we turn to the book of Luke 3:23 Joseph's father is Heli? both can't be right! considering the entire genealogy starts shaking and breaking into pieces when they start contradicting ..... Here's where the bigger problem starts! If the genealogy is referring to Joseph's ancestors how could jesus be part of it when he had not father? This tells us jesus according to Matthew and Luke bore no lineage from king david thus he is not true Messiah!  Christians try to reconcile the problem by saying Luke is talking of Mary's genealogy but the only problem with that is Mary's name is not mentioned anywhere in both genealogies? 

Below I will show how the genealogy found in Matthew and Luke does not apply to Mary in any way 


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PROTO GOSPEL OF JAMES 

How do we know neither of the genealogy apply to Mary because of Gospel of James (Apocrypha) chapter 1 we read Mary's fathers name was  Joachim? Now bear in mind this is a 2nd century gospel, regardless it being an Apocrypha it's a historical book written during the Christian Era, which many scholars take as a historical data source which may lead to a lot of findings that isn't mentioned in the gospels you have now.

If the people of that time were reading the gospel of James  which specifically spoke of the birth of Mary, they would have read Mary's father name is Joachim... How could one conclude Luke was referring to Mary's genealogy. The jews never used a woman genealogy to trace her ancestors rather it was the mans genealogy that was always used.. It's funny Matthew and Luke both used Joseph's genealogy  ?  

In short Mary's fathers name was Joachim and not Heli 

SHAME!!!!!

Jesse?

A rod out of the stem of Jesse



"And there shall come forth a rod out of the stem of Jesse, and a Branch shall grow out of his roots: And the spirit of the LORD shall rest upon him, the spirit of wisdom and understanding, the spirit of counsel and might, the spirit of knowledge and of the fear of the LORD;" (Isaiah 11:1-2)

Once again, we have here a verse which has been popularly interpreted to apply to Jesus, and once again it must be stated that although all Muslims believe in Jesus and in the prophesies of him in the OT, still, this specific prophesy does not apply to him, why?

To understand this prophesy we need to study the verses carefully. These verses tell us that the rod (branch) which shall grow out of the stem (trunk) of "Jesse" shall be filled by God with wisdom, understanding, council, might, knowledge, and the fear of God. In other words, he shall be a statesman, a prophet and a judge. The obvious question that springs to mind is: Who was "Jesse"? In the Encyclopedia Biblica we read that Jesse is a contraction of Ishmael, or:

"Jesse, for Ishmael… The changes which proper names undergo in the mouths of small children account for a large number of these particular abbreviations - who could guess, to take modern examples, that Bob and Dick arose out of Robert and Richard? … such forms as in ai were particularly common in later times … and many more in the Talmud, which also exhibits various other kinds of abbreviation" 

Encyclopaedia Biblica, Rev. T. K. Cheyne D.Litt D.D., J. Sutherland Black M.A. LL.D., Vol. 3, under "Names," p. 3292, item 52

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Now, the reason why these biblical scholars have said this may not be readily apparent to us simply by reading the English rendition of these two words, however, when these Christian scholars went back and looked at the original Hebrew words, that is when they realized it's true meaning. Although a complete understanding of why this is true would require a knowledge of the Hebrew language, still, it is possible at least phonetically to see this even in the English language. Let us have a look.

In Hebrew, the word Ishmael is written as Yishma'e'l. It is pronounced {yish-maw-ale'}.

Similarly, in Hebrew, the word Jesse is written as Yishay. It is pronounced {yee-shah'-ee}, or in Aramaic it is 'Iyshay and pronounced {ee-shah'-ee}.

Thus, we begin to see, even in our phonetic Hebrew rendition, how these Christian Biblical scholars came to recognize that just as "Dick" is a contraction of "Richard," and "Bob" is a contraction of "Robert," similarly, by studying the Hebrew words themselves, they found that {yee-shah'-ee} is indeed a contraction of {yish-maw-ale'}.

Isn't it amazing that we have been told this not by Muslims, but by Christian scholars? Which Muslim "Moor" stood over these Christian scholars with a drawn sword and forced them to come to this realization? Out of the thousands upon thousands of Hebrew names in the Bible, what drove these Christians to recognize that Jesse is derived from Ishmael and not, for example, from Judah, or Isaac, or Shem, or any of these other thousands upon thousands of Hebrew names? The odds against it are astronomical if what the Qur'an said was false. Yet here we have it in black and white. Isn't it amazing how with every passing day the most learned among Christians scholars are drawing closer and closer to Islam?

It is further interesting to note the following words of the authors of this same "Encyclopaedia Biblica": They say: "In many cases the contraction is such as to render the discovery of the original form impossible." … hmm.

The only "branch" from the stem of Ishmael who was a statesman, a prophet and a judge was prophet Muhammad (pbuh). The reason many people interpret this verse to apply to Jesus (pbuh) is because he is claimed to be of the lineage of king David, and Jesse was the name of the father of king David. However, why would this prophesy tie the coming prophet to the father of David who was for all practical purposes a completely unknown figure in the Bible? It would be much more logical to follow the much more popular trend found elsewhere in the Bible of associating Jesus with king David himself who was both a king and a prophet and a much more popular figure in the Bible and much better known to anyone who reads it. In other words, what is so direly special about king David's father that this prophesy had to completely bypass the legendary prophet king David himself in order to apply itself to his unknown father? The answer is that it was not meant to apply to the father of king David but to a descendant of Ishmael the son of prophet Abraham.

It is further important to remember that insisting on tying prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) to a human lineage descendant from king David shall ultimately result in a complete nullification of the religion known today as "Christianity." This is because if Jesus is the descendant of king David then he has a human father and his father is not God.

Some attempts have been made to insist that Jesus was the physical Son of God and at the same time apply spiritual contradictory human lineages to him such as Matthew 1 and Luke 3 so that he can be the physical son of both David and God. This, even though the Bible is quite explicit that the lineage must be a "physical" and not a "spiritual" lineage. We find this stipulation spelled out quite clearly in the Bible in:
  1. Acts 2:30 "Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne;" and
  2. Romans 1:3 "Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;"
Therefore, the only way that Jesus (pbuh) could be the physical Son of God and also be the physical son of king David "according to the flesh" is if his lineage from kind David passes through his (human) mother Mary (pbuh). However, if we were to read the two contradictory lineages found in Matthew 1 and Luke 3 we would find that both attempt to make his lineage pass through a human father. In one it is "Joseph the son of Jacob" and in the other is "Joseph the son of Heli." Such practices can only hurt the message of Jesus (pbuh) rather than helping it.

Friday, 4 November 2016

Forged

Did Moses really write Deuteronomy?

These are the words which Moses spake unto all Israel beyond the Jordan in the wilderness, in the Arabah over against Suph, between Paran, and Tophel, and Laban, and Hazeroth, and Di-zahab. (Deuteronomy 1:1)

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We know from the bible Moses  was told he would never cross to Jordan,   (Numbers 20:12) so this someone who is already situated in promised land, in the land of Canaan writing about "THESE ARE THE WORDS THAT MOSES SPOKE BACK WHEN HE WAS IN THE OTHER SIDE OF JORDEN"? Proves Moses could have written this. How could this be the writing of Moses if a passage contradicts his own location of stay?

We're they like God?

Adam as God according to Yahweh!


And the LORD God said, "The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil. He must not be allowed to reach out his hand and take also from the tree of life and eat, and live forever." (Genesis 3:22)
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so according to the above verse, anyone who knows the difference between good and evil becomes like Yahweh. and thats exactly what happened to Adam, he became like Yahweh, since he eat the fruit, a confirmation from God himself. Which begs the question Eve must of become the lady version of Yahweh?

Imagine even Jesus didn't get such a title from Yahweh, Yahweh recognized Adam the same as him God!

Wednesday, 2 November 2016

The missing story from Exodus how Yahweh planned to kill his Messenger using an Angel.


We find in the book of exodus a very interesting verse ,  the issue which many biblical scholars found puzzling is exodus 4:24. Its obvious that a very important part is missing from the story of Moses. First Let's read this problematic passage and all will be revealed. Since the topic of this paper is exodus 4:24 we shall read e few verses before just to show how the story turns into a mess. For those who are not familiar with exodus 4 it's the story where Yahweh spoke to Moses and turned his staff into a serpent made Moses know who Yahweh is Also commands Moses to go visit pharaoh and ask him to release the children of Isreal......  We'll start from verse 18


Moses Returns to Egypt
18Moses went back to Jethro his father-in-law and said to him, “Please let me go back to my brothers in Egypt to see whether they are still alive.” And Jethro said to Moses, “Go in peace.” 19And the LORD said to Moses in Midian, “Go back to Egypt, for all the men who were seeking your life are dead.” 20So Moses took his wife and his sons and had them ride on a donkey, and went back to the land of Egypt. And Moses took the staff of God in his hand. 21And the LORD said to Moses, “When you go back to Egypt, see that you do before Pharaoh all the miracles that I have put in your power. But I will harden his heart, so that he will not let the people go. 22Then you shall say to Pharaoh, ‘Thus says the LORD, Israel is my firstborn son, 23and I say to you, “Let my son go that he may serve me.” If you refuse to let him go, behold, I will kill your firstborn son.’” (Exodus 4:18-23)
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From the above passage starting from verse 18 we can see that Yahweh has commanded Moses to go back to Egypt and deal with pharaoh and bring back the children of Isreal now comes verse 24 where we find the problem!


24At a lodging place on the way the LORD met him and sought to put him to death. 

Wait a tick Yahweh wanted to kill Moses what for?  Starting from verse 1 all the way to verse 23 there is no sign of Yahweh showing his wrath to Moses. Yahweh had  a straight forward conversation with Moses commanding and instructing him what needs to be done. Why all of a sudden did Yahweh sought to kill him? For what reason do you see the gap between verse 23 and 24 like a major leap something happened in between those verses. What could have possibly happened that Yahweh wanted to kill him? Something is missing, furthermore there is no grammatical or linguistic way to solve this problem. this isn't half of what comes next, before that lets read the proceeding few verses after verse 24

24At a lodging place on the way the LORD met him and sought to put him to death. 25Then Zipporah took a sharp stone, and cut off the foreskin of her son, and cast it at his feet, and said, Surely a bloody husband art thou to me.  26So he let him alone. It was then that she said, “A bridegroom of blood,” because of the circumcision. (Exodus 4:24-26)

the proceeding  verses tell us zipporah cut her sons Forskin and touched His feet with it?  Here we have another issue to deal with "touched his feet" who's feet? Did zipporah touch Moses's feet ? Now the NIV, ESV, NASB, ISV all say Moses feet whereas the KJV or Hebrew bible which is more orthodox doesn't say Moses.
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The other problem to this verse it the Samaritan Torah says something completely different :
But seeboorah took a flint, and she CIRCUMCISED HER BLOCKED HEART and she brought herself to his feet and she said you are a bridegroom of blood to me,"
(Exodus 4:25 Samaritan Torah )

Do you see how the Samaritan Torah is different to the Masoretic Torah! It doesn't stop here we still need to scrutinise exodus 4:24 and do an in depth study of that puzzling. Verse. So far we know there is a missing gap between Exodus 4:1-23 to 24-26. We don't know why Yahweh sought to kill him and why he have difference between the Samaritan Torah and Masoretic Torah. However we do know Jews and Christians try to explain this problem of Yahweh trying to kill by saying Moses did not circumcise his son and one of the covenant made to Yahweh is circumcision, so this angered Yahweh and he tried to go and kill? This desperate attempt doesn't harmonise the situation but makes it worse when you consider how Yahweh made clear that he chose Moses to do his work yet at the same time wants to kill him? Sounds like a schizophrenic wouldn't you agree.

Now even if we accepted that no part of the story was missing and verse 24 was an immediate continuation from the previous verse. How does one justify why Yahweh would switch minds or in other words turn from Good to evil?. But let's not dwell much into this yet let's accept for now all this was planned. How did Yahweh try to commit this perfect murder let's find out from commentaries starting with Rashi :

24Now he was on the way, in an inn, that the Lord met him and sought to put him to death.כדוַיְהִי בַדֶּרֶךְ בַּמָּלוֹן וַיִּפְגְּשֵׁהוּ יְהֹוָה וַיְבַקֵּשׁ הֲמִיתוֹ:
Now he was: [I.e.,] Moses.ויהי: משה בדרך במלון:
on the way, in an inn and sought to put him to death: [I.e., He sought] Moses, because he had neglected to circumcise his son Eliezer. Because he neglected it, he was [to be] punished with death. It was taught in a Braitha: Rabbi Jose said: God forbid! Moses did not neglect it, but he reasoned: Shall I circumcise [him] and go forth on the road? It will be dangerous for the child for three days. Shall I circumcise [him] and wait three days? The Holy One, blessed be He, commanded me, “Go, return to Egypt.” [Moses hurried to Egypt intending to circumcise Eliezer upon his return.] Why [then] was he to be punished with death? Because first he busied himself with [the details of] his lodging. [This appears] in tractate Nedarim (31b). The angel turned into a sort of serpent and swallowed him [Moses] from his head to his thighs, and then [spit him out and] swallowed him from his feet to his private parts. Zipporah therefore understood that it was because of [the failure to perform] the circumcision [that this occurred]. — [from Ned. 32a, Exodus Rabbah 5:5]ויבקש המיתו: המלאך למשה, לפי שלא מל את אליעזר בנו, ועל שנתרשל נענש מיתה. תניא אמר רבי יוסי חס ושלום לא נתרשל, אלא אמר אמול ואצא לדרך, סכנה היא לתינוק עד שלשה ימים, אמול ואשהה שלשה ימים, הקב"ה צוני (פסוק י"ט) לך שוב מצרים. ומפני מה נענש, לפי שנתעסק במלון תחלה. במסכת נדרים (דף לא ב). והיה המלאך נעשה כמין נחש ובולעו מראשו ועד ירכיו, וחוזר ובולעו מרגליו ועד אותו מקום, הבינה צפורה שבשביל המילה הוא:
25So Zipporah took a sharp stone and severed her son's foreskin and cast it to his feet, and she said, "For you are a bridegroom of blood to me."כהוַתִּקַּח צִפֹּרָה צֹר וַתִּכְרֹת אֶת עָרְלַת בְּנָהּ וַתַּגַּע לְרַגְלָיו וַתֹּאמֶר כִּי חֲתַן דָּמִים אַתָּה לִי:
and cast it to his feet: She cast it before Moses’ feet. — [from Yerushalmi, Ned. 3:9]ותגע לרגליו: השליכתו לפני רגליו של משה:
and she said: about her son.ותאמר: על בנה:
For you are a bridegroom of blood to me: You were a cause that my bridegroom would [almost] be murdered. You are to me the slayer of my bridegroom.כי חתן דמים אתה לי: אתה היית גורם להיות החתן שלי נרצח עליך, הורג אישי אתה לי:
26So He released him. Then she said, "A bridegroom of blood concerning the circumcision."כווַיִּרֶף מִמֶּנּוּ אָז אָמְרָה חֲתַן דָּמִים לַמּוּלֹת:
So He released: [I.e.,] the angel [released] him. Then she understood that [it was] because of the circumcision that he had come to slay him.וירף: המלאך ממנו. אז הבינה שעל המילה בא להורגו:
she said, “A bridegroom of blood concerning the circumcision”: My bridegroom would have been murdered because of the circumcision.אמרה חתן דמים למולת: חתני היה נרצח על דבר המילה:
concerning the circumcision: Heb. לַמּוּלֹת concerning the circumcision. This is a noun, and the “lammed” serves as an expression meaning “concerning,” similar to “And Pharaoh will say concerning the children of (לִבְנֵי) Israel” (Exod. 14:3). Onkelos, however, translates דָמִים as referring to the blood of the circumcision.למולת: על דבר המולות. שם דבר הוא, והלמ"ד משמשת בלשון על, כמו (שמות יד ג) ואמר פרעה לבני ישראל. ואונקלוס תרגם דמים, על דם המילה:   


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Let's take this step by step firstly the Jewish commentator does not mention of the gap between Exodus 4:23 to 24-25 secondly we have a very graphic and detailed explanation of what really happened according to Jewish belief. Here's the striking part on how an Angel turned into a Serpent and swallowed Moses half way? 
"The angel turned into a sort of serpent and swallowed him [Moses] from his head to his thighs, and then [spit him out and] swallowed him from his feet to his private parts."
This is an unusual event which is spoken by classical Jewish scholars. Can you imagine Yahweh sent an Angel to kill his Messenger who he himself sent to carry out a mission? All this took because of his son was not circumcised how absurd. It had to be his wife zipporah who understood what she had to do get a knife and circumcise her son and throw the Forskin as his feet 

"Zipporah therefore understood that it was because of [the failure to perform] the circumcision [that this occurred]. — [from Ned. 32a, Exodus Rabbah 5:5]" but the question is who's feet.? Again let's find out from Jewish rabbis 

Moses’ feet :

(Rashi; Rashbam; Ibn Ezra). In the Talmud, one opinion is that it was at Moses’ feet, another that it was at the child’s feet, and a third, that it was at the feet of the angel who wanted to kill him (Yerushalmi, Nedarim 3:9). Others have, ‘the blood ran down [the child’s] feet’ (Ralbag); or, ‘She peeled back [the foreskin] toward his legs’ (Malbim).

married :
Literally, ‘a bridegroom of blood.’ Some interpret the Hebrew word chathan here to denote a newly circumcised child (Ibn Ezra), because the child is being initiated into new joy (Radak, Sherashim).

to blood :
Or, ‘you are like a murderer to me’ (Ibn Ezra; Radak; Sherashim; Tur); ‘you are the murderer of my husband’ (Rashi); or ‘You are bleeding so much’ (Ralbag). According to the opinion that she was addressing Moses (see note, this verse, ‘to the child’), she said, ‘Through this bloody child you will remain mine [and live]’ (Rashbam; Targum Yonathan); or, ‘Your marriage to me requires this blood’ (Sforno; Chizzkuni; Tur; cf. Targum). Or, ‘the circumcision blood of [my son] is staunched’ (Septuagint).

to the child :
In the Talmud there is a debate as to whether she was addressing Moses or the child (Yerushalmi, Nedarim 3:9).

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From the above biblical statements and classical commentary it's crystal clear Yahweh sought to kill Moses through a horrific evil method Making an Angel turn into an Serpent who swallowed him and spat him out... Also how there's a huge gap which has no explanation  

Sunday, 30 October 2016

Can any Christian show us?

The Quran is from Allah Swt

The revelation of this Book is from Allah, Exalted in Power, Full of Knowledge, ( Surah 40:2)

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We have, without doubt, sent down the Message; and We will assuredly guard it (from corruption). (Surah 15:9)

 No evil ones have brought down this (Revelation): It would neither suit them nor would they be able (to produce it). (Surah 26:210-211)

No falsehood can approach it from before or behind it: It is sent down by One Full of Wisdom, Worthy of all Praise. (Surah 41:42)

And it (the Quran) is not the word of the outcast Shaitan (Satan). (Surah 81:25)

Except whom He has approved of messengers, and indeed, He sends before him [i.e., each messenger] and behind him observers. That he [i.e., Muhammad Pbuh] may know1648 that they have conveyed the messages of their Lord; and He has encompassed whatever is with them and has enumerated all things in number.[ Surah 72:27-28]


This Quran could not have been produced by anyone other than God. In fact, it is a confirmation of what preceded it, and an elaboration of the Book. There is no doubt about it—it is from the Lord of the Universe. [Surah 10:37]

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Can our Christian friends show us where Yahweh said the bible is a revelation from him alone and not from Satan?

It's a challenge !!!



Saturday, 29 October 2016

Jeremiah and the scroll!


We find some very interesting information from the bible how  the word of God was burnt and then rewritten.


Yes shockingly the bible admits the words of Yahweh or Jeremiah to be precise was written down on scrolls and read to the King who wasn't happy with what he heard, so he cut them off with a knife and burnt them all. soon after Jeremiah  heard the news from his scribe he had the same scribe rewrite it again.


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It was the ninth month, and the king was sitting in the winter house, and there was a fire burning in the fire pot before him. As Jehudi read three or four columns, the king would cut them off with a knife and throw them into the fire in the fire pot, until the entire scroll was consumed in the fire that was in the fire pot. (Jeremiah 36:22-23)



Then the word of the LORD came to Jeremiah after the king had burned the scroll and the words which Baruch had written at the dictation of Jeremiah, saying, "Take again another scroll and write on it all the formerwords that were on the first scroll whichJehoiakim the king of Judah burned. "And concerning Jehoiakim king of Judah you shall say, 'Thus says the LORD, "You have burned this scroll, saying, 'Why have you written on it that the king of Babylon will certainly come and destroy this land, and will make man and beast to cease from it?'"… (Jeremiah 36:27-29)


We are even Advised To throw The Scroll of Jeremiah after reading it in the middle of Euphrates 
When you finish reading this scroll, tie a rock around it and throw it into the middle of the Euphrates. (Jeremiah 51:63)

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Christians run their mouths saying didn't Uthman (RA) burn the Qurans? Yet when a king burns the scrolls I.e words of Yahweh no one points a finger? Now going back to the bible how do we know what was written in the first place was the same as the second time round? Where are those scrolls? Doesnt the bible say the words of God last forever?




Goat Myth

Myth of Qur'anic verses eaten by a goat

Using a report from Sunan Ibn Majah the Christian missionaries allege that some verses of the Qur’an were lost as they were eaten by a goat. Let’s analyze the narration and try to find out the truth.

The narration goes as;

عن عائشة قالت لقد نزلت آية الرجم ورضاعة الكبير عشرا ولقد كان في صحيفة تحت سريري فلما مات رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم وتشاغلنا بموته دخل داجن فأكلها
Reported 'Aisha (RA): ‘the verse of stoning and of suckling an adult ten times was revealed, and they were (written) on a paper and kept under my pillow. When the Messenger of Allah (PBUH) expired and we were occupied by his death, a goat entered and ate away the paper.’ (Sunan Ibn Majah, Hadith 1944)

1- Authenticity of the narration:

Whenever we have a narration we ought to see whether it is authentic or not? The narration infact has some problems.
The particular chain given in Sunan Ibn Majah finds one of the narrators Muhammad bin Ishaq narrating it using the word عن ('an) which is rather an ambiguous way of narration and renders the narration weak when used by a narrator known for practicing Tadlis [practice of subtly missing a link] and Muhammad Ibn Ishaq is indeed such a narrator. Thus through particular chain of narration in Sunan Ibn Majah the narration is weak and unauthentic due the above mentioned defect though it has other issues as well as mentioned in the lines to follow. This is clarified by Shaykh Muhammad Taqi Usmani in Takmala Fath Al-Mulhim 1/69 pub. Darul Ahya Al-Turath Al-Arabi, Beirut.

In Musnad Ahmad the same narration is given through the same chain but with an explicit way of narration i.e. it does not have the defect like the narration in Ibn Majah’s collection. But the narration is exposed to more criticism because many other narrators have related from 'Aisha (RA) about the suckling/breastfeeding but no one has narrated the words found in this chain even though the narrators in those cases are more reliable and consistent than Muhammad bin Ishaq. And due to thefact of these words being narrated solely by him and in defiance to other much more reliable narrators, scholars have questioned its authenticity. Shaykh Shu’aib Arnaud has classified it as Da’if in his classification of Musnad Ahmad. See Musnad Ahmad 6/269 Hadith 26359.

2- The narration no way questions Qur’an infallibility:

Even if the narration were authentic it no way questions the claim of Qur’an being totally preserved and here are my evidences for this;

1- One of the two allegedly lost verses as per this narration was about stoning i.e. punishment of married adulterers. But other narrations prove that a commandment was revealed about stoning but the Holy Prophet (PBUH) did not allow it to be written as a part of the Qur’an implying that it was not meant to be Qur’an integral part. Following narrations testify to this;

a-It is reported in a narration from Kathir bin Salt that: Zaid (b. Thabit) said: 'I heard the Messenger of Allah say, 'When a married man or woman commit adultery stone them both (to death)', (hearing this) Amr said,

فقال عمرو : لما نزلت أتيت النبي صلى الله عليه وسلم فقلت : أكتبها ؟ فكأنه كره ذلك

'When this was revealed I came to Prophet and asked if I could write it, he (the Prophet) disliked it.'
 (Mustadrik Al-Hakim, Hadith 8184. Hakim called it Sahih)
b- About this 'verse' Kathir bin Salt says that he, Zaid bin Thabit and Marwan bin Hakam were discussing as to why it is not written in the Quranic manuscript and Umar bin Khattab was present with them and listening to their discussion he said he knew it better then them and told them that he came to Messenger of Allah and said:

يا رسول الله أكتبني آية الرجم قال فأتيته فذكرته قال فذكر آية الرجم قال فقال يا رسول الله أكتبني آية الرجم قال لا استطيع ذاك
"'O Messenger of Allah, let the verse about stoning be written for me.' He (the Prophet) said, 'I can't do this.'"(Sunan Al-Kubra Baihiqi 8/211 & Sunan Al-Kubra Nasai Hadith 7148. Albani (in Sahiha 6/412) said Baihiqi pointed to its authenticity)
Had it meant to be a part of the Qur’an why would Holy Prophet (PBUH) dislike its being written and who could stop him from doing it?

2- The second allegedly lost verse was about suckling of an adult ten times but in this case too we have other narrations which categorically say that the verse was abrogated. And interestingly those narrations come through 'Aisha (RA) only. In Sahih Muslim we read;

عَنْ عَائِشَةَ أَنَّهَا قَالَتْ كَانَ فِيمَا أُنْزِلَ مِنْ الْقُرْآنِ عَشْرُ رَضَعَاتٍ مَعْلُومَاتٍ يُحَرِّمْنَ ثُمَّ نُسِخْنَ بِخَمْسٍ مَعْلُومَاتٍ فَتُوُفِّيَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صَلَّى اللَّهُ عَلَيْهِ وَسَلَّمَ وَهُنَّ فِيمَا يُقْرَأُ مِنْ الْقُرْآنِ

'A'isha (Allah be pleased with, her) reported that it had been revealed in the Holy Qur'an that ten clear sucklings make the marriage unlawful, then it was abrogated (and substituted) by five sucklings ... (Sahih Muslim, Hadith 2634)
This narration explicitly says that verse about ten sucklings was abrogated. For further queries about this issue and the narration from Sahih Muslim see THIS.
Having known that neither of them was meant to be part of the Qur’an; even if we accept the narration in question we will have to say that perhaps 'Aisha (RA) had kept them with her as a historical record and nothing more. Thus even if the goat actually ate them up no part of the Qur’an was lost.

Moreover 'Aisha (RA) lived through the whole period of Qur’an compilation during the time of Abu Bakr (RA) and Usman (RA) while she was unanimously considered an authority for herself so if she had any thought about some verses missing she would have brought it to attention of other Companions of the Prophet (PBUH). Infact we have evidence of Usman (RA) making special endeavor of consulting 'Aisha (RA) and her records for verifying the official compilation. See Ibn Shabba’s Tarikh Al-Madinap.997. Despite all this she never raised the issue supporting our conclusion that no part of the Qur’an was lost even if the narration is considered reliable.

Indeed Allah Knows the best!

(This Academic Paper is Taken from "Let me Turn the Tables" website)

Wednesday, 26 October 2016

Tough Questions no Answers !!



Questions :

Is Yahweh a pedo if not how do you reconcile (Numbers 31:17-18) where Yahweh Commands  infants girls to be kidnapped and raped!    

But all the INFANT GIRLS (Taph) who have not known man by lying with him keep alive for yourselves to Devour (Lachem). (Numbers 31:18)


 Also this very same god of yours demands his shares of infant girls (Numbers 31:35-40).


                                           Dividing the Spoils


The plunder remaining from the spoils that the soldiers took was 675,000 sheep, 72,000 cattle, 61,000 donkeys and 32,000 girls who had never slept with a man.
(Numbers 31:35)



Below Yahweh not only splits the war booty but demands to keep 32 Virgin girls for himself?


The half share of those who fought in the battle was:

337,500 sheep, 37 of which the tribute for the Lord was 675;
38 36,000 cattle, of which the tribute for the Lord was 72;
39 30,500 donkeys, of which the tribute for the Lord was 61;

40 16,000 people, of whom the tribute for the Lord was 32.
(Numbers 31:40)


Doesn't that make yahweh a pedo What kind of a god devours infant girls?

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Where in the entire bible is pedophilia Prohibited please quote the chapter and verse!

What is the Age Consent for Marriage in the bible? What is the minimum age for marriage found in the bible?

Where in the entire bible does it state if a Prophet Marries a young girl his Prophethood is nullified ??

How old was Rebecca when she married Isaac?

How old was Dinah when she got raped and married Shechem?

How old was Esther when she married Xerxes?

How old was Abishag when she was sleeping with 70 year old King David?

What's the punishment if you rape a young girl?

Why does yahweh allow a child to be killed if he or she curses their parents, but is silent if an adult does?

Where does the bible say Wife Beating is Prohibited?

Where are the tablets which had the commandments written on? If you say they are lost how do you know the bible has accurately listed those exact commandments.?

Where are the records of the Trial of Sanhedrin, if it really took place there must be some documentations to prove it What happend to all the scribes.?

The temple of the curtains were torn during an earthquake yet not a shred of evidence is found. Not a single jewish rabbi or scribe mentioned of such a great event how comes?

Where in the entire bible is Kissing a Stone or Brick out of reverence forbidden (note not worshipping rather kissing out of reverence like the jews kiss the Western wall forbidden?)

Why is the Bible silent on When Satan  was created, unless Satan was Alpha always from the begining?

If Luke was a disciple of Jesus how did he witness Jesus getting circumcised when he was himself was a baby? 


What Torah version is correct :

Lavtin vulgate Torah

Peshttita Torah

Masoretic Torah 

Samaritan Torah

Septuagint Torah

Which bible is inspired 73 books or 66 books or 81 books?

Where in the Entire bible does it say Islam is a False religion by Name?

If jesus is supposed to be god who was he praying to? Does god pray to another god?

What is the punishment for Stealing in the Bible?

How can you Prove the gospels you preach is 100% Authentic and Accurate. How can you prove they are divinely inspired?

Where in the Entire bible does it say this book is a Revelation from Yahweh and not Satan?

Where did Cain get his wife from when there were only 3 people on Earth?

Where did yahweh say polygamy is prohibited?

How is a Marriage Ceremony performed biblically, what are the rules and criteria?

Where in the bible does it say the Quran is not from God? Show us where the Prophets of previous Times have Spoken of the Quran as not to be part of God Almightys Words. Show us the Chapter and Verse?

According to the Bible the Garden of Eden was on Earth so where is it now?

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Now christians claim they have the holy ghost guiding them so these questions should be a piece of cake to answer!!!!


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According to Paul the Laws of Old Testament are man made


You must not eat their meat or touch their carcasses; they are unclean for you.(Leviticus 11:8)

You must not eat any fat or any blood.' (Leviticus 3:17)


"Do not handle! Do not taste! Do not touch!"? These rules, which have to do with things that are all destined to perish with use, are based on merely human commands and teachings. (Colossians 2:21-22)

Notice how Paul says commandments such as the ones found in Leviticus the law of God is man made and shouldn't be followed



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Can Christians prove that Jesus of the Bible was a true Prophet and Messiah. Can you prove from the Old Testament, that your Jesus was not false. Where did Yahweh declare that Jesus was a true Messiah?
Show us the word Messiah in the Torah referring to Jesus, and also show us the name Jesus in the Torah referring to Messiah?
In short can any Christians prove that their Jesus is a true Messiah. Watch how They will struggle to answer, in fact they will use the Quran as their defense which only shows that they have no other way out other then accepting Islamic sources. Saying that till now I haven't come across a single nasrani, who has been able to answer without using Islam

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Question:

 

If your sins can be taken away how about your good deeds? Can you give away your good deeds also?


Question for my Christian friends

 

What if a 1st century manuscript was discovered in Palestine, which mentioned the name Muhammed (Pbuh) as a foretold Messenger, what would your reaction be.? One cannot dismiss this , since manuscripts of the gospels are still being discovered. So theoretically dismissing, the finding of a 1st century manuscript is absurd. note this is after the manuscript was authenticated through palaeography, as an official 1st century manuscript (document).

 

Would you

 

(a) reject the 1st century manuscript as a forge, and stick to the 3rd and 4th century manuscripts instead?

 

(b) question the authenticity of gospels you have within your hands, seeking for answers?

 

(c ) denounce your belief in Christianity for deceiving you to believe it was the truth, and reject the entire bible?

 

(d) accept Islam as the Truth?


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If your sins can be taken away how about your good deeds? Can you give away your good deeds also?

question on the Old Testament and Judaism  yom kippur




List of etiquettes, virtues, and moral conduct taught or exemplified by Prophet Muhammad ﷺ, with Qur’an and/or hadith references. Qur’anic teachings and Prophetic teachings.

  List of etiquettes, virtues, and moral conduct taught or exemplified by Prophet Muhammad ﷺ , with Qur’an and/or hadith references. Qur’ani...