Truth behind the veil

Thursday, 17 November 2016

Who spoke Yahweh or satan?

And a voice came from heaven: "You are my Son, whom I love; with you I am well pleased." (Mark 1:11)

From the above verse it seems pretty much clear that The voice that came from the heaven was of Yahweh's ? However when we read the gospel of john we find another rather interesting passage:

And the Father who sent me has himself testified concerning me. You have never heard his voice nor seen his form, (John 5:37)

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Now the question is if jesus himself according to john is saying that no one has heard or seen God? So how did the author witness this event? Or even worse how did John the Baptist witness and hear ?

Then John gave this testimony: "I saw the Spirit come down from heaven as a dove and remain on him. And I myself did not know him, but the one who sent me to baptize with water told me, 'The man on whom you see the Spirit come down and remain is the one who will baptize with the Holy Spirit.' (John 1:32-33)

Was the author present there when John the Baptist heard yahweh speak? Which still leaves us with the big problem that no one has HEARD THE VOICE of yahweh, bear in mind jesus never said satan could not be heard?... What makes one say Satan wasn't the one speaking instead of yahweh... Just like Paul apparently heard jesus speak !

Who's words are more dearer to christians the authors or Jesus's, if jesus is saying no one has heard the voice of Yahweh, them It's only Understood SATAN SPOKE!!

What a blunder !!

Jesus of the bible a sinner who repented!!

Did jesus give any clue that he was a sinner? According to the books of the New Testaments he did, we find passages to show that jesus of the bible was a sinner and used to Repent. Christians brag that the jesus they worship and follow was a sinless lamb and perfect in all ways... However they have no evidence of the 18 missing years of their so called sinless saviôur? Where was jesus and what was he doing its a mystery even biblical historians find hard to Answer..

Below we shall see how jesus of the bible before his ministry was a sinner and during his ministry would repent. Firstly Jesus was Baptised by John the Baptist and we know about John the Baptist and what he used to do for a living...

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"And he came into all the country about Jordan, preaching the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins." (Luke 3:3)

Then Jerusalem was going out to him, and all Judea and all the district around the Jordan; and they were being baptized by him in the Jordan River, as they confessed their sins he baptized them in the Jordan River. (Matthew 3:5-6)

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From the above evidence from the gospels themselves we read that John the Baptist will "preach the baptism of repentance" and all people will come get baptised to wash away there SINS!!.... It's bizarre to read that the sinless lamb was baptised?

Then Jesus arrived from Galilee at the Jordan coming to John, to be baptized by him.

(Matthew 3:13)

At that time Jesus came from Nazareth in Galilee and was baptized by John in the Jordan. (Mark 1:9)

When all the people were being baptized, Jesus was baptized too.

(Luke 3:21)

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Now christians being deceptive will say no no jesus was setting us an example that we should get baptized so we are purified... But that goes against the words of john the Baptist Who said jesus will baptize with Holy Spirit and fire NOT WATER!

"I baptize you with water for repentance. But after me comes one who is more powerful than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire. (Matthew 3:11)

This concludes jesus was baptised by water and was a sinner since John the Baptist was cleaning those who sinned... And jesus being a man would also be liable to sin much like anyone.. Since no one knows what he was doing before his ministry started Naturally he wanted a fresh start and what better place then start of by getting baptised....

Second point jesus praying for forgiveness

One day Jesus was praying in a certain place. When he finished, one of his disciples said to him, "Lord, teach us to pray, just as John taught his disciples."And He said to them, "When you pray, say: 'Father, hallowed be Your name. Your kingdom come. 'Give us each day our daily bread. 'And forgive us our sins, For we ourselves also forgive everyone who is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation.'"

Luke (11:1-4)

Interestingly jesus of the bible prayed?? His disciples asked him how to teach the. How they should pray after they saw jesus himself pray... Now jesus would teach word for word what he would pray right ? And funny enough jesus prayed FORGIVE US OUR SINS!! Once again jesus is humble enough to admit he is a sinner unlike christians trying to hide it.. also in Matthew 6:12 according to Smith and Van Dyke Arabic Bible, the word used to denote the actual Greek word is ‘zunubana’ (i.e. our sins):

(وَاغْفِرْ لَنَا ذُنُوبَنَا كَمَا نَغْفِرُ نَحْنُ أَيْضاً لِلْمُذْنِبِينَ إِلَيْنَا) transliterated as ‘waghfirlana zunubana’ i.e. forgive us our sins.

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Biblically repenting isn't a taboo, why do christians try to hide jesus repenting when yahweh himself repented? Imagine God of the bible God of Isreal Repents so what makes jesus any special that he shouldn't?

Genesis 6:6

Exodus 32:11-14

Deuteronomy 32:36-42

1 Samuel 15:11, 35

2 Samuel 24:1-16

1 chronicles 21:1-15

Jeremiah 18:8

Jeremiah 26:13

Jeremiah 42:10

Jonah 3:3-10

Amos 7:1-3

Amos 7:4-6

Jeremiah 15:6 etc.....

This paper should be sufficient to shut these deceptive christians !!

SHAME!!

Holy crap!!

And he came to the sheepcotes by the way, where was a cave; and Saul went in to cover his feet: and David and his men remained in the sides of the cave. (1 Samuel 24:3)

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Saul went to "COVER HIS FEET" what does that mean? Well, according to Rashi medieval Tanak scholar "to cover his feet" means : To stool (Call of nature, having to go toilet to get rid of waste! (i.e. taking a crap, having a S**T)

The question is, why would this be added as part of God's word? How does that benefit if one applies 2 Timothy 3:16 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness,

Absolutely pathetic the God of the bible adding Saul had to take a crap? This is a joke

Shame on you jews and Christians !!!

According to Isaiah, Yahweh will shave  "pubic hair" (רֶגֶל (regel) with a razor?

In that day the Lord will shave with a razor that is hired beyond the River—with the king of Assyria—the head and the hair of the feet, and it will sweep away the beard also. (Isaiah 7:20)

Talmudic commentary suggests  רֶגֶל (regel),means pubic hair or the private part area

The Gemara continues its challenge. Come and hear another verse: “He had neither dressed his feet [raglav], nor trimmed his beard” (II Samuel 19:25). The phrase “dressed his feet [raglav]” is referring to treating his pubic hair, implying that even the area around the thigh is referred to as regel. The Gemara answers: This is a euphemism. The Gemara attempts another challenge: Come and hear from another verse: “And Saul went in to cover his feet [raglav]” (I Samuel 24:3), meaning: To urinate, implying that regel refers even to the thighs. The Gemara answers: This is also a euphemism. (Yevamot 103a:15)

Yahweh would shave pubic hair רֶגֶל regel,? Seriously! Let's not get confused, according to 1 Samuel 24:3 Saul went to "COVER HIS FEET" (רֶגֶל regel, what does that mean? Well, according to Rashi medieval Tanak scholar "to cover his feet" means  : To stool  (Call of nature, having to go toilet to get rid of waste! i.e. taking a crap, having a S**T (Emphasis added)

Meaning back and front will be shaved by a razor

Mark, Matthew! Luke & John are damned ( According to Paul )

But even if we or an angel from heaven should preach a gospel other than the one we preached to you, let them be under God's curse! As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed. (Galatians 1:8-9)

Very interesting statement is found in one of the letters of Paul to the Galatians, it seems to destroy the fountain of the 4 gospels written by Mark Matthew Luke and John.. Notice how it states if any angel or human should preach another gospel other then what Paul preached then they should be damned!!

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Funny enough Mark, Matthew, Luke and john wrote the gospels well after paul much longer... Infact luke in his biography of jesus explicitly states many have written and he is just another, but with a better understanding?

Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled[a] among us,just as they were handed down to us by those who from the first were eyewitnesses and servants of the word. With this in mind, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, I too decided to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus, (Luke 1:1-3)

Shall we conclude that the current Gospels that christians take for granted are sanctioned by paul as unauthentic and those men's are to be damned!!!

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How about paul what gospels did he preach? when we read the book of Acts and letters to the Corinthians we find something very interesting :

In everything I did, I showed you that by this kind of hard work we must help the weak, remembering the words the Lord Jesus himself said: 'It is more blessed to give than to receive.' " (Acts 20:35)

who was the Scribe ( Seraiah, Shavsha, Shemaiah ?)

Zadok son of Ahitub and Ahimelek son of Abiathar were priests; Seraiah was Scribe

(2 Samuel 8:17)

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Zadok son of Ahitub and Ahimelek son of Abiathar were priests; Shavsha was Scribe

(1 Chronicles 18:16)

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The Scribe Shemaiah son of Nethanel, a Levite, recorded their names in the presence of the king and of the officials: Zadok the priest, Ahimelek son of Abiathar and the heads of families of the priests and of the Levites--one family being taken from Eleazar and then one from Ithamar.

(1 chronicles 24:6)

A book which claims it's not confusing?

Something to ponder on

The word Judaism is not found in the Old Testament, nor is Judaism called a Religion in the Old Testament so what religion did Moses present to the children of Israel I.e Nation to follow?

Now one may say just because the Old Testament doesn't use the word Judaism doesn't mean people wasn't aware of it, take for instance the New Testament we find Judaism in there. But notice Judaism is only spoken by Paul? Not even Jesus himself nor the gospels uttered such a word?. Secondly the questions authenticity depends on the Old Testament the entire codex has no mention of such a religion how comes ?

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Here comes the blow

What religion did the prophets of the Old Testament follow is not mentioned, nor does the Old Testament distinguish their belief status other then calling them righteous, upright, perfect, servants etc... Now what makes you say they did not follow Islam as their religion since being righteous, upright, prefect is following the right path o.e monotheism which is the religion of ISLAM...

Christians say there is no Islam in the bible nor is Judaism found in the Tanack shall we conclude Moses and his people did not have a religion?

The Bible says nothing against pedophila pedophile ( infant child )

What the Bible says about Pedophilia

The Bible has nothing to say against pedophilia.

But it does have some passages that seem to approve of it. For example:

It's OK to have sex with "women children" that are obtained in war.

And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, Avenge the children of Israel of the Midianites ... And they warred against the Midianites, as the LORD commanded Moses; and they slew all the males ... And the children of Israel took all the women of Midian captives, and their little ones ... And Moses was wroth with the officers ... And Moses said unto them, Have ye saved all the women alive? ... Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him. But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves. Numbers 31:1-18

When thou comest nigh unto a city to fight against it ... And when the LORD thy God hath delivered it into thine hands, thou shalt smite every male thereof with the edge of the sword: But the women, and the little ones, and the cattle, and all that is in the city, even all the spoil thereof, shalt thou take unto thyself. Deuteronomy 20:10-14

How shall we do for wives for them that remain, seeing we have sworn by the LORD that we will not give them of our daughters to wives? ... And the congregation sent thither twelve thousand men of the valiantest, and commanded them, saying, Go and smite the inhabitants of Jabeshgilead with the edge of the sword, with the women and the children. And this is the thing that ye shall do, Ye shall utterly destroy every male, and every woman that hath lain by man. And they found among the inhabitants of Jabeshgilead four hundred young virgins, that had known no man by lying with any male: and they brought them unto the camp to Shiloh. Judges 21:7-11

Go and lie in wait in the vineyards; And see, and, behold, if the daughters of Shiloh come out to dance in dances, then come ye out of the vineyards, and catch you every man his wife of the daughters of Shiloh ... And the children of Benjamin did so, and took them wives, according to their number, of them that danced, whom they caught. Judges 21:20-23

It's OK to sell your daughter (no mention is made of age) to a man for him to use as a sex slave.

if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant ... If she please not her master, who hath betrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed ... If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. Exodus 21:7-10

Biblical Fiction !!

The authors of The New Interpreter's Bible, like the other writers that we have mentioned earlier, state that the biblical Book of Esther is work of fiction that happens to contain some historical elements. It then lists many factual errors only to conclude that the Book of Esther is not a historical record.

Although much ink has been spilled in attempting to show that Esther, or some parts of it is historical, it is clear that the book is a work of fiction that happens to contain some historical elements. The historical elements may be summarized as follows: Xerxes, identified as Ahaseurus, was a "great king" whose empire extended from the borders of India to the borders of Ethiopia. One of the four Persians capitals was located as Susa (the other three being Babylon, Ecbatana, and Persepolis). Non-Persians could attain to high office in the Persian court (witness Nehemiah), and the Persian empire consisted of a wide variety of peoples and ethnic groups. The author also displays a vague familiarity with the geography of Susa, knowing, for example, that the court was separate from the city itself. Here, however, the author's historical veracity ends. Among the factual errors found in the book we may list these: Xerxes' queen was Amestris, to whom he was married throughout his reign; there is no record of a Haman or a Mordecai (or, indeed, of any non-Persian) as second to Xerxes at any time; there is no record of a great massacre in which thousands of the people were killed at any point in Xerxes' reign. The book of Esther is not a historical record, even though its author may have wished to present it as history...

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Reference

L. E. Keck et al. (Eds.), The New Interpreter's Bible: General Articles & Introduction, Commentary, & Reflections For Each Book Of The Bible, Including The Apocryphal / Deuterocanonical Books, 1994, Volume III, Abingdon Press: Nashville

Wednesday, 16 November 2016

John 10:30 ( shredded to bits )

A Study of John 10:30 (I and the Father Are One.)

I and the Father are one. (John 10:30)

This verses is almost used by every Christian who wants to prove the divinity of Jesus. They make it so certain that this verses is so explicit which shows Jesus was God! But does it really? We shall examine this alleged claim made by Christians and close this case for good.

Now in order to refute or expose the lies Christians make for this verse one has to read the context which seems to be a pretext. What is a Pretext?

A pretext (adj: pretextual) is an excuse to do something or say something that is not accurate. Pretexts may be based on a half-truth or developed in the context of a misleading fabrication. Pretexts have been used to conceal the true purpose or rationale behind actions and words.

In other words John 10:30 I and the Father are one seems to be a very misleading statement which we shall expose.let's read a few verses prior to the statement.

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22At that time the Feast of Dedication took place at Jerusalem. It was winter, 23and Jesus was walking in the temple, in the colonnade of Solomon. 24So the Jews gathered around him and said to him, “How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Christ, tell us plainly.” 25Jesus answered them, “I told you, and you do not believe. The works that I do in my Father’s name bear witness about me, 26but you do not believe because you are not among my sheep. 27My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me. 28I give them eternal life, and they will never perish, and no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all, and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father’s hand. 30I and the Father are one.” (John 10:22-30)

Now from context it seems like a tense moment where the Jews cornered Jesus asking him who he really is? In response after a long metaphorical explanation Jesus seems to suggest he is God? And that's exactly what Christians use to prove Jesus's divinity. Remember where we mentioned about Pretext? This is exactly what we mean by pretext :

Let's read further on few verses after john 10:30 and find out what was the reaction of the Jews after hearing Jesus say I and the Father are one :

31The Jews picked up stones again to stone him. 32Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?” 33The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.” 34Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’? 35If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken— 36do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? (John 10:31-36)

Did you Catch the joke? Notice how the Jews picked up stones to stone jesus, yet Jesus challenged them by saying why are you stoning me, the Jews replied they are stoning him because he blasphemed I.e Jesus was claiming to be God? Yet the answer Jesus gave back was he is not God rather he is a son of God !.. On top of that calling the Jews God.

Let's dismantle this passage step by step :

Jesus encounters the Jews

The Jews ask who he is

Jesus tells them he's doing his father job

Jews still were unsure

Jesus tells them he and the father are one

Jews pick up stones to stone him

Jesus challenges them why are they stoning him

Jews reply Jesus he blaspheming calling himself God

Not only did Jesus call the Jews god's (John 10:34) he also proved them wrong by calling himself a son of god negating such statements by the Jews !

do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? (John 10:36)

Jesus is confirming he is not God rather a son of God, in Jewish understanding this means a Servant of God. also note psalm 82:6 ye are gods meaning judges, the John 10:30 could mean the Jews didn't accept Jesus as a judge like themselves!

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Now coming back to the pretext how the context was distorted making one think that Jesus claimed to be God, we have another point to make.

If Jesus said to the Jews why do you stone me if i said I'm the son of God why did the Jews think he was blaspheming by claiming to be God? Unless Jesus never said I and the father are one?

Think of it the those Jews could not have been that stupid that they didn't now the difference between someone calling them self son of God or God Almighty? It's clear Jesus could not have said I and the father are one.

Also not according to verse 36 Jesus said :

"do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?

Here we read Jesus told them he was the Son of God, the highest laden question is where did Jesus say in those context verses that he was the Son of God? If we read from verse 22 all the way down to verse 30 nowhere did Jesus refer himself as the son of God? Which only means it's a missing verse or replaced with verse 30 I and the father are one.

It's dilemma for Christians once scrutinised, at least we can conclude Jesus never claimed to be God in John 10:30 nor anywhere else in the bible to be precise.

Tuesday, 15 November 2016

The so called saviôur who lied to his followers !!

You go to the festival.I'm not going to this festival, because my time has not yet come.

(John 7:8)

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An interesting passages exposes a serious problem, Jesus of the bible lying to his disciples, notice form the above passage he was asked to go to the (Jewish festival) however Jesus refused the invitation and said he is not going to the festival rather you guys go I'll stay here? Let's read the next couple of verses to find out if he stuck to his words?

After saying these things, Jesus remained in Galilee.But after his brothers had gone up to the feast, then he also went up, not publicly but in private.

(John 7:9-10)

ITS CRYSTAL CLEAR JESUS OF THE BIBLE LIED TO HIS DISCIPLES!! This is not something new from the bible it's been a serious problem since the mid 2nd century

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Porphyry (234-305) a Greek philosopher made an attack against Christianity, accusing Jesus Christ of being inconsistent, based on John 7:8 where Jesus declared : “I am not going up to this feast…” (Revised Standard Version.), yet two verses later we read: “…But after his brothers had gone up to the feast, then he also went up, not publicly but in private.” Without doubt there must have been manuscript(s) in circulation at that time with this rendering; otherwise his accusation could just have been set aside as based on a corrupted copy of the gospel. Looking at the evidence of surviving documents up to 500 A.D. this version is supported by two Greek manuscripts, and no less than 10 different translations, spread over the entire known world of that time, viz. 4 old Latin, 1 Vulgate, 2 Syrian, 1 Coptic (Egyptian), 1 Armenian and 1 Georgian. Quite convincing! But there is also another version stating that Jesus said: “…I am not yet going up to this Feast.” (MKJV, NIV). This version is supported the two oldest documents to our avail, one written before Porphyry’s time, the other during his lifetime as well as a Coptic (Egyptian) translation also made in the same period. Yet up to 500 A.D. we have only 3 more Greek manuscripts, a Syrian and a Gothic translation in support of this rendering. Only 8 documents up to 500 A.D. compared with the 12

SHAME!!!!!

According to Christians, Muslims are Unbelievers!

If someone who isn't a believer asks you home for dinner, accept the invitation if you want to. Eat whatever is offered to you without raising questions of conscience.

(1 Corinthians 10:27)

It's ok for Christians to eat food from unbelievers, now according to Christians Muslims are unbelievers, shall we conclude from this passage that Christians can eat Halal food?

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Do not be associates with those who are unbelievers; for what partnership has righteousness with evil, or what intimacy has light with darkness?

(2 Corinthians 6:14)

The Lord says, "Get away from unbelievers. Separate yourselves from them. Have nothing to do with anything unclean. Then I will welcome you."

(2 Corinthians 6:17)

Muslims are unbelievers according to Christians ! So Christian shouldn't associate with us and separate themselves from us?