True or False?

Almost all Christians  claim they have the Holy Spirit with them (or Inside Them) this is when they start to prophesy and boast they were inspired by the Holy Spirit, but the Golden Question is how do they know they don't have an Evil Spirit with them? It's Crystal Clear from the Bible Yahweh has Two Spirits that Proceed to Humans, One Good the other Evil! 

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Now the Spirit of the LORD departed from Saul, and an evil spirit from the LORD terrorized him. (1 Samuel 16:14)

("The evil spirit from God came upon Saul, and he prophesied.")

The next day an evil spirit from God came forcefully on Saul. He was prophesying in his house, while David was playing the lyre, as he usually did. Saul had a spear in his hand

(1 Samuel 18:10)

And it came to pass, when the evil spirit from God was upon Sha᾽ul (1 Samuel 16:23)

What's worse Paul the founder of Christianity wasn't aware if he had the Holy Spirit yet Christians claim they have lol

Yet in my judgment she is happier if she remains as she is. And I think that I too have the Spirit of God. (1 Corinthians 7:40)

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Christians are in trouble now unless they can prove to us they have the Actual Good Spirit from Yahweh  not the Evil Spirit? ASK THEM FOR PROOF AND WATCH THEM TURN TO INSULTS!! ( don't forget to ask them how does God Have Good and Evil Sprits doesn't that sounds Absurd lol )

The Seven Qira'at of the Qur'an

(Written by Aisha Bewley)

When reading the Qur'an, we frequently refer to Warsh or Hafs and say, "This is Hafs" or "This is Warsh". What we mean by that is that this is the riwaya or Warsh or the riwaya of Hafs. It is the riwaya of a particular qira'a. The qira'at or the readings, or methods of recitation, are named after the leader of a school of Qur'an reciters. Each qira'a derives its authority from a prominent leader of recitation in the second or third century hijri who in turn trace their riwaya or transmission back through the Companions of the Prophet. For instance, in the back of a Warsh Qur'an, you are likely to find "the riwaya of Imam Warsh from Nafi' al-Madini from Abu Ja'far Yazid ibn al-Qa'qa' from 'Abdullah ibn 'Abbas from Ubayy ibn Ka'b from the Messenger of Allah, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, from Jibril, peace be upon him, from the Creator." Or in Hafs you will see "the riwaya of Hafs ibn Sulayman ibn al-Mughira al-Asadi al-Kufi of the qira'a of 'Asim ibn Abi'n-Nujud al-Kufi from Abu 'Abdu'r-Rahman 'Abdullah ibn Habib as-Sulami from 'Uthman ibn 'Affan and 'Ali ibn Abi Talib and Zayd ibn Thabit and Ubayy ibn Ka'b from the Prophet, may Allah bless him and grant him peace." These all go back to the Prophet.

There are slight differences in these readings, for example, where one stops, as in Surat al-Baqara (1): "Dhalika'l-Kitabu la rayb" or "Dhalika'l-Kitabu la rayba fih" as well as some voweling differences ("suddan" or "saddan"), and sometimes a difference in the letters due to different diacritical marks, as ya' or ta' (turja'una or yurja'una). Sometimes a word will have a shadda or not have a shadda.

In this context, we should mentioned that the Prophet himself said that the Qur'an was revealed in seven dialects (ahruf, sing harf). Harf here means dialect, idiom, or mode of expression. Now, during the khalifate of 'Uthman, this had given rise to squabbling. For instance, the Syrians followed Ubayy ibn Ka'b, the Kufans followed 'Abdullah ibn Mas'ud, the people of Hims followed al-Miqdad, and the people of Basra followed Abu Musa. To put an end to these squabbles over which was best, 'Uthman decided to unite the community behind one text.

In the time of Abu Bakr as-Siddiq, Zayd ibn Thabit had been charged by Abu Bakr to gather together all the written parts of the Qur'an and compile a complete text (for a large number of huffaz had been killed in the Battle of Yamama). He did this, and it is reported that he was the first to collect the Qur'an between two covers." This copy went from Abu Bakr to 'Umar and then to Hafsa.

'Uthman used it to make his copy which was then distributed to all parts of the Muslim umma, but it is reported that 'Uthman "made the copies of the Qur'an" or "united the Muslims on a single copy." The impetus to do this was provided by Hudhayfa ibn al-Yaman when he returned to Madina after observing regional differences. He said to him, "Take this umma in hand before they differ about the Book like the Christians and Jews." So he sent for the copy made by Abu Bakr which was in the possession of 'Umar's daughter, Hafsa.

The Qurayshi dialect was favoured in this and this eliminated much of the diversity, but some of it was still reflected in the different readings because it was essentially a business of oral transmission and there were no diacriticalmarks in the 'Uthmanic script. People recited the Qur'an as they had read it from their teacher and they in turn passed on this oral transmission.

Within the qira'at, there are two categories:

 a transmission which has independent chains of authorities so wide as to rule out the possibility of any error and on which there is consensus.

 these are slightly less wide in their transmission, but still so wide as to make error highly unlikely.

There are 7 mutawatir qira'at and 3 mashhur ones.

Nafi' (d. 169/785)

Ibn Kathir (d. 120/737)

Abu 'Amr ibn al-'Ala' (d. 154/762)

Ibn 'Amir (d. 154/762)

'Asim (d. 127/744)

Hamza (d. 156/772)

al-Kisa'i (d. 189/904)

The Mashhur:Abu Ja'far (d. 130/747)

Ya'qub (d. 205/820)

Khalaf (d. 229/843)

There are also some "shadhdh" readings, rare readings which are generally discounted.

It used to be that proper scholars learned all 7 or even 10 qira'at. Sometimes they would use one qira'a one day and another the next day. Some people had copies of the variants marked in them. There was a slavegirl called Tawaddud in the time of Harun ar-Rashid who knew all ten readings by heart,

However, these readings did then to divide up according to location. For instance, in 200 AH, Basra was reciting the qira'a of Abu 'Amr and Ya'qub, Kufa was using Hamza and 'Asim, Syria was using Ibn 'Amir, Makka had Ibn Kathir, and Madina was using Nafi'. Egypt, which was the home of Warsh, used Warsh largely up until the arrival of the Turks. Then Hafs became popular as it was the variant which the Turks used. Hafs, incidentally, is the qira'a of 'Asim, used in Kufa. The Warsh riwaya of the qira'a of Nafi'.

Today, the two readings must used are the qira'a of 'Asim in the riwaya of Hafs, and the qira'a of Nafi' in the riwaya of Warsh. Also in use in Africa is the qira'a of Abu 'Amir in the riwaya of ad-Duri.

Now, each of these readings, or riwayas, is the whole of the Qur'an as recited by a master in all the variants which are transmitted from him. It is a corupus of reciation. The forms of each recitation are referred to by the notable students of the master who recited them. So we will find the tariq (pl. turuq) of so-and-so, the student of the master. Then under the Turuq, there are also the wujuh. We find the wajh of so-and-so from the tariq of so-and-so. There are about twenty riwayat and eighty turuq. So you can see how fine and precise the science of transmission was with these people. The difference between the turuq and wujuh under a riwaya are so slight as to be almost unnoticeable. They are mainly in intonation and diction rather than voweling or inflection. But this is the level of care and precision which these people had

Echad means One!

many perverted nasaras claim that the Hebrew word for Echad (One) actually doesn't mean one? In other to fulfill their vain desires they use a statement which Jesus had suppose to have made a perfect example will be when Jesus suppose to have said two flesh become ONE :

"Haven't you read," he replied, "that at the beginning the Creator 'made them male and female,' and said, 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh'? (Matthew 19:4-5) 

Thats a common reply Christians give and to be honest it's a very lame one, firstly we can be sure it's a metaphorical statement since two flesh cannot be ONE unless you went through some serious medical surgery secondly suppose we even took this ECHAD ( ONE ) to actually mean more then one then we will face some seriously problems that's if we use the analogy for all other statement found in the bible right ?? Let's see what we can make of this  word ECHAD : 

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But they replied, "Your servants were twelve brothers, the sons of ONE man, who lives in the land of Canaan. The youngest is now with our father, and one is no more."

(Genesis 42:13)

Son of ONE man (l.e Jacob ) shall we conclude the twelve brothers had more then ONE Father?? Let's carry on.

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Now the LORD had said to Moses, "I will bring ONE more plague on Pharaoh and on Egypt. After that, he will let you go from here, and when he does, he will drive you out completely. (Exodus 11:1)

How many more plague were brought to pharaoh? Was that not the LAST "ONE" or were there more after ??? Since they all drowned and no more plague touched them let's carry on.

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And Solomon's provision for ONE day was thirty measures of fine flour, and threescore measures of meal, (1 kings 4:22)

Now Solomons wealth in ONE day accumulated to such an amount? The question is does the ONE day mean ONE or more then ONE day? Wouldn't that really change his statue  

Also note of one doesn't mean one. Then we can conclude a man can marry more then one wife? Since they very word one doesn't mean One it means more then One.

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This is what Anthony buzzard had to say about ECHAD 

There are some 970 occurrences of “one” (echad) in the Hebrew Bible. The word means “one and not more than one.”  One single! The fact that one day has an evening and morning (Gen. 1:5) does not in any way alter the meaning of the word “one”! Do think this through carefully and show your children! “Abraham was one [echad] person” (Ezek. 33:24). What does that tell you about the plurality of Abraham?! Nothing. The language is exactly the same for God. Abraham and God are each “one p/Person”!

Jesus said, “The Lord our God is one Lord,” (Mark 12:29) and his word is final. “One Lord” is not more than one Lord! Mark 12:29 has yet to make its impact on the churchgoing

Mishna condemned such action!

Then Mary took about a pint of pure nard, an expensive perfume; she poured it on Jesus' feet and wiped his feet with her hair. And the house was filled with the fragrance of the perfume. (John 12:3)

As she stood behind him at his feet weeping, she began to wet his feet with her tears. Then she wiped them with her hair, kissed them and poured perfume on them. (Luke 7:38)

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From above verses we read Jesus had his feet perfumed and washed by a prostitute, which was clearly against the tradition of a Practicing Jew. I've already written about this topic found in my blog http://mustafa-apologist.blogspot.co.uk/2016/11/very-unsual.html. 

Here I want to show how this was highly unorthodox according to the Jewish oral law. If you read the Mishna you'll find certain rules and regulation on what appropriate actions should be taken with a man and woman whom there is no relation with.

There's an entire chapter with guidelines on what type of actions are forbidden for men towards women whom they are not married to. Let's read from the Mishna how Jesus having his feet washed and perfumed by a women was wrong according to the written oral law

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Mishna Issurei Biah - Chapter Twenty One

It is forbidden for a man to have any woman - whether a minor or an adult, whether a servant or a freed woman - perform personal tasks for him, lest he come to lewd thoughts.

Which tasks are referred to? Washing his face, his hands, or his feet,10 spreading his bed in his presence,11 and pouring him a cup. For these tasks are performed for a man only by his wife.12

[A man] should not send greetings to a woman at all, not even via a messenger.13

(Issurei Biah - Chapter Twenty One verse 5) This applies even if the woman does not actually touch him [Shulchan Aruch (Even HaEzer 21:5)].

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This raises the question, Jesus of the bible condemned the Jews for following the oral laws (Matthew 23) maybe because it applied on him and he  wanted an escape route? Had Jesus known the orthodox Jewish principles and guidelines towards (non mehram) I.e one whom is not your immediate family rather a strange man or woman, he would have abstained the women from perfuming and touching his feet. No wonder the Jews has a problem with his behaviour on delicate issues such as breaking the law of the Torah.

Christian polygamy dilemma!

Did Korede say can you provide ONE single verse where God COMMANDS men to MARRY more then one wife in the bible ????

lets show him what his Bible say's about polygamy. 

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If a man has two wives-one beloved and the other despised-and they bear him sons, the beloved one and the despised one, and the firstborn son is from the despised one.

(Deuteronomy 21:15 Masoretic Torah)

If a man have two wives, one beloved, and another hated, and they have born him children, [both] the beloved and the hated; and [if] the firstborn son be hers that was hated: (Deuteronomy 21:15 Samaritan Torah)

And if a man have two wives, the one loved and the other hated, and both the loved and the hated should have born him children, and the son of the hated should be first-born; (Deuteronomy 21:15 Septuagint Torah) 

If a man have two wives, one beloved, and the other hated, and they have had children by him, and the son of the hated be the firstborn, (Deuteronomy 21:15 Latin vulgate Torah)

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If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights. (Exodus 21:10 Masoretic Torah)

And if he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. (Exodus 21:10 Samaritan Torah)

And if he take another to himself, he shall not deprive her of necessaries and her apparel, and her companionship with him. (Exodus 21:10 Septuagint Torah)

And if he take another wife for him, he shall provide her a marriage, and raiment, neither shall he refuse the price of her chastity. (Exodus 21:10 Latin vulgate Torah) 

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from the above verses, Yahweh explicitly states how a man show tread his second wife. Please show us where Yahweh prohibited on taking a second wife?  We shall also see how Yahweh is responsible for taking the wife of another man, and handing her over to King David. and finally show variant readings from earlier Manuscripts on what Jesus said regarding divorce. 

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And I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things."  (2 Samuel 12:8 Masoretic Tanack)

God spoke through the prophet (Nathan), calling out king David. exposing him for taking another man's wife (Bathsheba, wife of Uriah the Hittite), which in the eyes of the Lord is  adultery, and for setting up the death of Uriah the Hittite to try to hide his sin.

Note during this event, king David had already been married to at least seven known-named wives. (1_Samuel 18:27, 25:42-43, 2_Samuel 3:2-5.)

But, in this verse 8 (above), God was not condemning king David for all those wives. God Himself was saying that HE was the one who had GIVEN  king David those wives.

If God was against David's polygamy, He certainly would not have said that He had GIVEN David all those wives.

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Early manuscripts tell us something that will shock you !

Divorce 

One Christian doctrine which varies a lot from one manuscript to the next is teaching about divorce.
The early manuscripts have some twenty different sayings about divorce. I list just a few of them. All of them are different versions of the same passage :- Matthew 19:9 They give different teachings about whether a man can remarry or whether a man can marry a divorced woman.

• Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Ephraemi, Codex Regius Whoever divorces his wife, except for fornication, and marries another commits adultery.
• Codex Purpureus Petropolitanus Whoever divorces his wife , except for fornication, makes her an adulteress and the person marrying a divorced woman commits adulteryHere there is no prohibition on a man remarrying, but there is a new prohibition about marrying a divorced woman.
• Freer Gospels, Koridethi Codex Whoever divorces his wife , except for fornication, and marries another commits adultery and the person marrying a divorced woman commits adulteryBoth prohibitions have been combined
• Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus (Original Version) Whoever divorces his wife , except for fornication, and marries another makes her an adulteress and the person marrying a divorced woman commits adulteryThe prohibitions on a divorced man remarrying has been removed , but the part saying 'makes her an adulteress' has been added.
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Can you see how the early manuscripts tell us that marrying another woman is permissible, providing she wasn't divorced by her husband. notice how scribes made the changes throughout time, so it fits in with society for that time. now that's what I call tampering.

dont marry two instead marry three

And Rav said to Rav Asi: Do not live in a city where horses do not neigh and where dogs do not bark, as the these animals provide security and protection. And do not live in a city where the mayor is a doctor, as he will be too busy working to govern properly. And do not marry two women, as they will likely join forces against you. And if you do marry two, marry a third as well. If two of your wives plot against you, the third will inform you of their plans. (Talmud Pesachim 113a)

a man may marry wives in addition to the first wife; provided only that he possesses the means to maintain them" (Talmud: Yevamot 65a)

Yahweh gave David, Sauls wives

 

I gave your master's house to you, and your master's wives into your arms. I gave you all Israel and Judah. And if all this had been too little, I would have given you even more. (2 Samuel 12:8)

 

 

Rabbis married many wives

 

 

"Raba said: a man may marry wives in addition to the first wife; provided only that he possesses the means to maintain them" (Babylonian Talmud: Yevamot 65a. halakhah.com)

 

: "He may not, however, compel his wives to live in the same courtyard. Instead, each one is entitled to her own household" (Mishneh Torah: Laws of Matrimoney 14:3. chabad.org)

 

TEMPORARY MARRIAGE IN JUDAISM MUTA MARRIAGE 

Lord of sabbath

For the Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath. (Matthew 12:8)

Christians love using this statement to show Jesus was Somewhat superior then everyone else. Now what prompted the author to call him the lord of Sabbath? Well, when you read the context of  verse 8 you get to realise why Jesus was called the Lord of Sabbath.

At that time Jesus went through the grainfields on the Sabbath. His disciples were hungry and began to pick some heads of grain and eat them. When the Pharisees saw this, they said to him, “Look! Your disciples are doing what is unlawful on the Sabbath.”

He answered, “Haven’t you read what David did when he and his companions were hungry?  He entered the house of God, and he and his companions ate the consecrated bread—which was not lawful for them to do, but only for the priests.  Or haven’t you read in the Law that the priests on Sabbath duty in the temple desecrate the Sabbath and yet are innocent? I tell you that something greater than the temple is here. ⁷ If you had known what these words mean, ‘I desire mercy, not sacrifice,’you would not have condemned the innocent.  For the Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath.” (Matthew 12:1-8)

They also say, he healed on Sabbath which wasn't allowed according to the Old Testament.

The LORD then gave these further instructions to Moses: ‘Tell the people of Israel to keep my Sabbath day, for the Sabbath is a sign of the covenant between me and you forever.  It helps you to remember that I am the LORD, who makes you holy.  Yes, keep the Sabbath day, for it is holy.  Anyone who desecrates it must die; anyone who works on that day will be cut off from the community.  Work six days only, but the seventh day must be a day of total rest.  I repeat: Because the LORD considers it a holy day, anyone who works on the Sabbath must be put to death.’ (Exodus 31:12-15)

Working on the sabbath was considered as a capital offence yet Jesus healed doesn’t this show was Lord. Interestingly we read from the Talmud, that  it is permissible to heal on sabbath. Again only if the Christians took more notice of the oral law (explanation) of the Old Testament they wouldn't brag on such a pathetic saying LORD OF SABBATH

Talmud

The Sages frequently use the verse from Hosea 6:6, that helping people was of greater importance than observing the rituals and customs (Sukkah 49b, Deuteronomy Rabbah on 16:18, etc.), just as jesus did. In fact, they used the same examples As jesus  presented, David’s eating the Tabernacle bread and the Temple offerings made on the Sabbath, to demonstrate the same general principle, that the needs of life override the Sabbath restrictions (Y’lomm’denu, Yalkut II, par. 130, Tosefta Shabbat 15b).

There you have it, the oral law is clear one is allowed to work during Sabbath, however conditions apply providing it’s for a greater good.  We can conclude Jesus of the Bible wasn’t the Lord of the Sabbath after all.

It (the Sabbath) is committed to your hands, not you to its hands.—R. Jonathan ben Joseph, Yoma 85a

Jesus names Abiathar as high priest when he wasn't

At one point fairly early on in his ministry, the synoptics record that Jesus was questioned about an apparent breach of the sabbath. This is in Mark 

And he said to them, 'Have you never read what David did when he and his companions were hungry and in need of food? He entered the house of God, when Abiathar was high priest, and ate the bread of the Presence, which it is not lawful for any but the priests to eat, and he gave some to his companions.' (Mark 2:25-26)

                               ----------------- Jesus makes mistake------------------------

Then David came to Nob to Ahimelech the priest. And Ahimelech came to meet David trembling and said to him, "Why are you alone, and no one with you?" (1 Samuel 21:1)

It certainly seems that either Jesus or Mark has made a mistake and named the wrong priest. How can he make such a mistake?? Why lie about the name if he wasn't sure That's breaking the law of the OT, unless he read another book which isn't part of the tanak..

Married ??

According to Christians Jesus was not married, but where in the NT does it say Jesus was not married??

We know 30 years of his life is missing from the gospels? What makes you say he wasn't married  during those 30 missing years unless we have explicit verses from the NT where it says Jesus was not married and was celibate...

Bear in mind the woman that used to follow him known as Mary magdene Possessed  by 7 demons  (Luke 8:2) would touch him even put expensive fragrant on his  feet? (John 12:3)

And how does a woman get expensive perfume unless she was a prostitute

(Luke 7:36-40) 

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Interestingly........

Christians boast Isaiah 53 !!!

Have you read verse 10 of Isaiah 53 ?

Yet it was the LORD's will to crush him and cause him to suffer, and though the LORD makes his life an offering for sin, he will see his offspring and prolong his days, and the will of the LORD will prosper in his hand. (Isaiah 53:10)

Jesus would see his offsprings... KJV says Seeds meaning his progeny 

So where are his kids??

We await to see some explicit verses where your so called saviour wasn't married 

funny

Muslim : Is Jesus God? 

Christian : yes he is God !

Muslim : has he always been God?

Christians : yes he has always been God since the beginning !

Muslim : so he's also the God of Israel whom Jews worship,  the God of the Old Testament? 

Christians : yes yes he is also the God of Israel whom Jews worship and of the Old Testament  !

Muslim : so was he the one who inspired Moses and his followers to Kill all Mens and boys and women's but keep all the infant Girls to Rape as found in Numbers 31:17-18?

Christian : NO THAT WASN'T JESUS THAT WAS YAHWEH! 

Lol........

Very weak and pathetic argument made by James White and David wood

Christians apologists such as James White and David wood use such pathetic arguments which only further lowers their status in front of Muslims. 

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David and James both state that  Muslims believe that Prophet Muhammed Pbuh is the Comforter whom is mentioned in the gospel of John, but they add a twist to it. They say that Jesus said that he will send the Comforter and if Muslims believe that God sent the Comforter then doesn't that make Jesus God since he said he will send the Comforter ? 

But very truly I tell you, it is for your good that I am going away. Unless I go away, the Advocate will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you. (John 16:7)

Notice how the apologist focus's on the part where Jesus said  "I WILL SEND HIM TO YOU" they are trying to say, Jesus will send the Comforter so Jesus must be God. Do you see how they twisted the entire saying?  had they read chapter 14 of the very same Bible, they wouldn't of humiliated themselves with such a BLUNDER!

And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another advocate to help you and be with you forever (John 14:16)

Notice from the above verse Jesus is saying "I WILL ASK THE FATHER" I.e he will ask God to send the Comforter this is again clarified in John 15 

“But when the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth, who proceeds from the Father, he will bear witness about me. (John 15:26)

Again Jesus will send the comforter FROM THE FATHER! A good example could be you working for a private company taking an order  and  saying  don't worry I'll get the goods delivered to you, but in reality you didn't send the delivery yourself you  consulted with the manager of the company he first approved it, then you got  it sent confirming  to the customer I'VE SENT YOUR DELIVERY! Did you really send it from yourself or was it approved by your boss?

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In short Jesus said he will ask God to send the Comforter and not that he will send the comforter himself, since Jesus himself said :

By myself I can do nothing... ( John 5:30)

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for arguments sake even if we took what James and David claimed then we have a serious problem to deal with since Jesus was SENT by Pilate to Herod?

When he learned that Jesus was under Herod's jurisdiction, he sent him to Herod, who was also in Jerusalem at that time. (Luke 23:7)

Elijah sends a letter to Jehoram from heaven?

I want to share another hilarious Biblical absurdity found in the book of Kings and  Chronicles. Let's  read couple of verses from the book of Kings, before to jump to Chronicles.

As they were walking along and talking together, suddenly a chariot of fire and horses of fire appeared and separated the two of them, and Elijah went up to heaven in a whirlwind. (2 Kings 2:11)

In the fifth year of Joram son of Ahab king of Israel, when Jehoshaphat was king of Judah, Jehoram son of Jehoshaphat began his reign as king of Judah. (2 Kings 8:16)

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Now I don't have to give a commentary for the above verses posted, every Christian and Jew knows Elijah was taken up to heaven in a whirlwind. I've also added the name of Jehoram the son of Jehoshaphat since he will be the subject of this absurdity in order to complete this I have to add another verse so you can verify it yourself.

Jehoram received a letter from Elijah the prophet, which said: "This is what the LORD, the God of your father David, says: 'You have not followed the ways of your father Jehoshaphat or of Asa king of Judah. (2 chronicles 21:12)

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Wait a sec how's that possible? If Elijah went to heaven before Jehoram became king, which happened on the fifth year how did he get a letter from Elijah? DID ELIJAH SEND A LETTER FROM HEAVEN, ARE YOU SAYING THERE'S A POST BOX AND POST MAN IN HEAVEN WHO SENDS DOWN LETTERS? THIS IS A JOKE ! The letter was admonishing Jehoram for not following his fathers footsteps. it wasn't a letter written in the past, rather was a present letter.

Now Christians please solve this super blunder how Elijah the prophet ascended into heaven on a "chariot of fire" during the reign of Jehoshaphat (i.e. Jehoshaphat was still king after Elisha had succeeded Elijah - 2 Kings 3:11). How then could King Jehoram, who succeeded Jehoshaphat as king, have received a letter from Elijah after Elijah was taken away?

Also if Jesus was supposed to be in heaven with Yahweh like Christians tell us why then didn't Elijah mention of him in his letter which was send from HEAVEN!

In short, Jehoram began to reign after Elijah went to heaven (2 Kings 2:11, 8:16), so how could King Jehoram receive a letter from him? (2 Chronicles 21:12)