Ahmed found in the Book of Isaiah
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Prophet Muhammad's prophetic Name, "Ahmed", was found in the Dead Sea Scrolls, and it was mentioned precisely in the Glorious Quran for the Prophet to be foretold by this very Name, Ahmed:
"And when Jesus the Son of Mary said, O children of Israel, verily I am the Apostle of God sent unto you, confirming the law which was delivered before me, and bringing good tidings of an Apostle who shall come after me, and whose name shall be Ahmed. And when he produced unto them evident miracles, they said, this is manifest sorcery. (The Noble Quran, 61:6)"
"And when Jesus the Son of Mary said, O children of Israel, verily I am the Apostle of God sent unto you, confirming the law which was delivered before me, and bringing good tidings of an Apostle who shall come after me, and whose name shall be Ahmed. And when he produced unto them evident miracles, they said, this is manifest sorcery. (The Noble Quran, 61:6)"
Ahmed found in book of Isaiah
The question that most of us ask now, arose before during the time of Muhammad s.a.w; preaching the words of God onto Arabia. Was Muhammad mentioned? This was the question by inhabitants of Arabia towards Jews that embraced Islam. And if we refer to the claim by past Jewish converts, they had quote verses from Isaiah 42.
Lets look at the passages in Isaiah. God address His chosen servants with their names, and in the prophesied verse we see God mention clearly the prophet's name. Some examples of God mentioning His servant by name.
(My Servant Isaiah, My Servant Eliakim, David My Servant, Jacob My Servant, My Servant Israel, and so in Isaiah 42:1 , God specifically mention My Servant Ahmad)
In Isaiah 42:1, it is deemed not a coincidence upon seeing the writing of both אתמך (Atmc) אחמד (Ahmd). And the word before אתמך (Atmc), is עבדי (Abdi~My Servant). For indeed, it is indicating Ahmad; Abdullah (Ahmad; Servant of God).
Not to mention אתמך (Atmc) happen to be a special term foretelling the coming of a righteous man and is used only ONCE throughout the entire Book. [could this be a copying error or an intended error?]
~~
The prophecy tells about Ahmad; 'Servant of God' whom will war to correct the wrongs and bringing judgement based on the law of God. He will liberate act of worshiping molten images and thus Arabia (wilderness desert, villages and cities) will glorify God since then. As can be seen today, Arabia are worshiping,praising God and singing words of God daily. Inhabitants from all around the world gather there and voice out loud their praise to God.
And we continue reading Isaiah 42:18 – 25; God remind the 'blind and deaf' about the wrath of God towards Children of Israel, whom neglect the message brought by past Servant of God.
And not to repeat; the same mistake upon the coming of the new Servant of God
The original reading should read
Behold my servant, (Ahmd אחמד ) Ahmed, my chosen, in whom my soul delights; I have put my Spirit upon him; he will bring forth justice to the nations.
(Isaiah 42:1)
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• Abu al-Baqa'a al-'Okbari's أبو البقاء العكبري (died 616 a.H.) I'rab al-QIra'at a-Shadah إعراب القراءات الشاذة.
• Al-Karmani رضي الدين الكرماني (died 563 a.H.) Shwadah al-Qur'an شواذ القراءات
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Lets look at the passages in Isaiah. God address His chosen servants with their names, and in the prophesied verse we see God mention clearly the prophet's name. Some examples of God mentioning His servant by name.
(My Servant Isaiah, My Servant Eliakim, David My Servant, Jacob My Servant, My Servant Israel, and so in Isaiah 42:1 , God specifically mention My Servant Ahmad)
In Isaiah 42:1, it is deemed not a coincidence upon seeing the writing of both אתמך (Atmc) אחמד (Ahmd). And the word before אתמך (Atmc), is עבדי (Abdi~My Servant). For indeed, it is indicating Ahmad; Abdullah (Ahmad; Servant of God).
Not to mention אתמך (Atmc) happen to be a special term foretelling the coming of a righteous man and is used only ONCE throughout the entire Book. [could this be a copying error or an intended error?]
~~
The prophecy tells about Ahmad; 'Servant of God' whom will war to correct the wrongs and bringing judgement based on the law of God. He will liberate act of worshiping molten images and thus Arabia (wilderness desert, villages and cities) will glorify God since then. As can be seen today, Arabia are worshiping,praising God and singing words of God daily. Inhabitants from all around the world gather there and voice out loud their praise to God.
And we continue reading Isaiah 42:18 – 25; God remind the 'blind and deaf' about the wrath of God towards Children of Israel, whom neglect the message brought by past Servant of God.
And not to repeat; the same mistake upon the coming of the new Servant of God
The original reading should read
Behold my servant, (Ahmd אחמד ) Ahmed, my chosen, in whom my soul delights; I have put my Spirit upon him; he will bring forth justice to the nations.
(Isaiah 42:1)
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Prophet Muhammad
(peace be upon him) in Isaiah 29:12:- Greek text of Isaiah 29:12 from
Sinaiticus:-The Book will be delivered in Hira to an illiterate man...",
"And the Book
(or this/that Book) will be delivered in Hira [to] an illiterate man, and one
shall say to him: 'Read this, and he shall say: 'I’m not learned.'"
[exactly what
happened with Prophet Muhammad in cave of Hira on receiving first revelation]
Isaiah 29:12 with
LXX (Septuagint) version preserved in Codex Sinaiticus:- check link http://codexsinaiticus.org/en/manuscript.aspx?book=14&chapter=29&lid=en&side=r&verse=12&zoomSlider=0
In Codex Sinaiticus,
the original writer – scribe B, section Isa 29:9-30:8, folio 53 - obviously
wrote word first χιρα (chira-in Arabic Hira), but later, the corrector
(fabricators) identified by scholars as Cb3, inserted a small epsilon (ε) and
sigma (ς) in order to change its meaning from indeclinable feminine proper
noun, "Hira" (χιρα), to a plural feminine noun in accusative case,
"hands" (χειραϲ).
If you put in Google’s translator the English phrase "In the
cave of Hira" and choose translation to Greek, it will give you the
following result: Στο σπήλαιο της Χίρας (Sto spílaio tis Chíras). As you can
see, it uses exactly the same letters for the word Hira. Again, if you put the
Greek phrase το ειϲ Χιραϲ ανθρωπου from Sinaiticus, it will translate it as
"the man in Hira". And once again, if you put the Greek phrase ον
τουτο ειϲ χιραϲ you will find "being these in Hira" etc. The most
striking, however, is when you type χιρα or χιραϲ alone, and you select
translation to Arabic, the alternative rendering will be غار حراء (ghar Hira = the cave of Hira!!!):
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Conclusion: Old Greek text of Isaiah 29:12 according to Codex
Sinaiticus gives an invaluable testimony that the sealed book shown to an
illiterate man, took place in χιρα (Hira), and Google Translator even clearly
pinpoints that it is in Arabic غار حراء (ghar Hira), i.e. the cave Hira, which
is a famous holy place located in the Meccan desert where Prophet Mohammed
(SAAW) received his first Quranic revelation, in 610 AD.
let’s confirm once
again from another angle the way how Isaiah 29:12 is alluding to Prophet
Mohammed (SAAW) as an unthought man to whom will be given the book. We will
quote the Targum-Jonathan to Isaiah 29:12, an early Aramaic translation of the
Hebrew Bible (however it was revised in the seventh century AD… again,
obviously because of Mohammed’s SAAW appearance as an Arab!)
The Aramaic Text of
Isaiah 29:12 (Sperber’s Critical Edition)
וְיִתיְהֵיב סִפרָא לִדלָא
יָדַע סִפרָא לְמֵימַר קְרֵי כְעַן דֵין וְיֵימַר לֵית אְנָא יָדַע סִפרָא
English Translation
by Bruce D. Chilton (1987)
“And all prophecy
has become to you like the words of a book that is sealed. When men give it to
one who knows the book, saying, “Read this,” he will say, “I cannot, for it is
sealed.” And the book will be given to one who does not know the book, saying,
“Read this,” and he will say, “I do not know the book.”
The above phrase from Chilton’s literal translation “one who does
not know the book” (לִדלָא יָדַע סִפרָא) is interesting since it perfectly corresponds with
Prophet Mohammed’s (SAAW) case when Allah has revealed to him مَا كُنتَ
تَدرِي مَا الْكِتَابُ (ar.
ma kunta tadri ma l-kitabu), i.e. “You did not know what is the Book”. Let’s
read the entire verse of Sura 42:52 where these words appears:
وَكَذَٰلِكَ أَوْحَيْنَا
إِلَيْكَ رُوحًا مِّنْ أَمْرِنَا ۚ مَا كُنتَ تَدْرِي مَا الْكِتَابُ وَلَا
الْإِيمَانُ وَلَٰكِن جَعَلْنَاهُ نُورًا نَّهْدِي بِهِ مَن نَّشَاءُ مِنْ
عِبَادِنَا ۚ وَإِنَّكَ لَتَهْدِي إِلَىٰ صِرَاطٍ مُّسْتَقِيمٍ
Sahih International
“And thus We have
revealed to you an inspiration (ar. ruhan, i.e. Gabriel AS) of Our command. You
did not know what is the Book or [what is] faith, but We have made it a light
by which We guide whom We will of Our servants. And indeed, [O Muhammad], you guide
to a straight path”
Sura 29:48 which very clearly states by
emphasizing that Prophet Mohammed (SAAW) didn’t know how to read and write
before the Quran came down to him:
وَمَا كُنْتَ تَتْلُو مِنْ
قَبْلِهِ مِنْ كِتَابٍ وَلَا تَخُطُّهُ بِيَمِينِكَ ۖ إِذًا لَارْتَابَ
الْمُبْطِلُونَ
Yusuf Ali
Translation
“And thou was not
(able) to recite a Book before this (Book came, i.e. the Quran), nor art thou
(able) to transcribe it with thy right hand: In that case, indeed, would the
talkers of vanities have doubted.”
Christian apologetic
argumentation actually does not disprove in any way that when the first Quranic
revelation in Hira took place Prophet Mohammed (SAAW) was unlearned. In other
words, it does not affect the claim that Isaiah foreshadows Mohammed (SAAW) as
an illiterate prophet and Muslim’s interpretation is still 100 % valid in this
matter, since Allah clearly says he couldn’t read nor write before the Quran
was given to him (ar. ma kunta tatlumin qablihi), i.e. until the age of forty
he was not learned yet (what happened later is another question.
All the Mushafs we have today show that the name of Ahmad is present in those Mushafs. The supposed variant reading of Ubayy ibn Ka'b is not mentioned by any of the earlier scholars of the qira'āt.
The Husseini Manuscript includes the name Aḥmad in Q61:6.
None of the following books on shadh qira'at quoted it:
• Ibn Janni's ابن جني (died 392 a.H.) al-Muhtassab المحتسب في تبيين وجوه شواذ القراءات والإيضاح عنها
• Ibn Khalawayh's ابن خالويه (died 370 a.H.) Mukhrassar fi shawadh al-Qur'an مختصر في شواذ القرآن من كتاب البديع
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In addition, the verse, along with the name Aḥmad is also present in several earlier manuscripts, including Arabe 328(b), which is datable to the 1st century AH/7th century CE
But for the sake of argument, we assume it is authentic to Ubayy ibn Ka'b, the verse itself reads that ʿĪsā ibn Maryam (ﷺ) is giving glad tidings of a last and final prophet to humanity, and in another place in the Qur'ān, we read that Muḥammad (ﷺ) is that last/final messenger.
So, we really don't know where this supposed manuscript with a variant reading that Arthur Jefferey quotes comes from...
It could also be argued that it doesn't even make sense when read in context, because why would the Jews exclaim, "This is indeed pure magic!" (قالوا هذا سحر مبين) at Jesus, son of Mary (ﷺ) giving glad tidings of a last and final prophet?
What's so shocking about that?
This phrase is usually said in the Qur'ān by disbelievers when they are in disbelief of a great sign that just occurred.
What's so supernatural and miraculous about Jesus (ﷺ) giving glad tidings of a Prophet?
Isn't that literally what all Prophets have done in the past?
Jazaakallaho khayran for your work
ReplyDeleteAssalamu alaikum, where did you get the image for the last image of AHMD you posted.
ReplyDelete