Questions
Why did Yahweh contradict himself in Genesis by creating the sun and moon on the fourth day [Gen. 1: 16-19] to provide light during the day and night when he already created light for the day and night on the first day [Gen. 1: 3-5]?
Bible say, “God is love” [1 John 4:8], “love is not jealous” [1 Corinthians 13: 4] and “God is jealous” [Exodus 20:5]? [Deductive reasoning makes it impossible for all three verses to be true simultaneously].
Why is it that God is allowed to possess a characteristic [jealousy, in Deut. 4:24 and Exodus 20:5] that the Bible itself denounces in Proverbs 27:4 and 14:30?
When Noah’s ark landed, how did the kangaroos make it back to Australia?
The Bible tells us that God regretted making Saul king (1 Samuel 15:11), but if that’s the case, doesn’t that mean God didn’t know the future? Because if he knew he was going to regret making Saul king, he would’ve never done it in the first place.
The Bible tells us that God sacrificed his only son so that we can go to Heaven (John 3:16), but the Bible also tells us that he raised his son back from the dead again. If God didn’t really lose his son, then how is that a sacrifice?
The Bible tells us that God isn’t willing that anybody should perish (2 Peter 3:9), but his holy word has been corrupted through the ages by mankind, so doesn’t that mean that God either allowed it to be corrupted, or he was unable to keep it from being corrupted?
In the book of James, God instructs Christians on what they should do when they get sick (James 5:14-15). There’s supposed to pray and lay hands on the sick person, and God promises to heal them, so why do you ignore God’s command and run to science every time
In the book of James, God instructs Christians on what they should do when they get sick (James 5:14-15). There’s supposed to pray and lay hands on the sick person, and God promises to heal them, so why do you ignore God’s command and run to science every time
The Bible tells us that Jesus threw a huge temper tantrum in the Jewish temple (John 2:15). He actually made a whip, and whipped these people, and drove them out of the temple, but not before overturning their tables and spilling their money everywhere. The Bible also tells us that Jesus called a Canaanite woman a dog (Mark 7:27). And Jesus insulted the Pharisees by calling them derogatory names at every turn (Matthew 23:13-33). Jesus also lied to his own disciples (John 7:8-10); they asked him if he was going to the feast, he said, “no, my time’s not yet come.” And he turns around and goes to the feast.
Jesus also condones slavery and he did not denounce the crimes of rape or paedophilia (Matthew 10:24, Matthew 24:46, Luke 17:7). Not only that, Jesus taught that if you call somebody a ‘fool’, you are in danger of going to hell (Matthew 5:22). Then he turns around and calls several people fools (Matthew 23:17, Luke 24:26). Not only that, the Bible tells us that Jesus explicitly upheld the ghastly Mosaic Law that requires children to be killed if they became unruly (Matthew 15:3-4, Matthew 5:17-18, Deuteronomy 21:18-21).
there are clear historical inaccuracies in the New Testament. One such example is that of Acts 5, where Luke writes of the Pharisee Gamaliel's speech (vv. 34-39). This speech would have taken place around AD 35-40, yet it refers to Theudas' revolt of AD 46-47 as a past event. Furthermore, Gamaliel is made to say that "Judas the Galilean" raised a revolt which followed that of Theudas - but Judas' revolt was in AD 6 or 7! We know these dates from Josephus, most notably, as well as from other records.
In addition, what are we to do with the wide variation of chronologies in the Gospels, different placements of pericopes in the timeline of Jesus' ministry (i.e the healing of the paralytic in Mark 2), and the substantial disagreement of John with the other three, in terms of historical outline?
A third question concerns authorship - mainly, the authorship of the Gospels and of the Pentateuch. Both sets are anonymous, textually - furthermore, the earliest date we even have for a name being applied to the gospels is in the very late first century, with quotations by Papias (transcribed by Irenaeus), and that only to Mark and Matthew (if we are to understand him to refer to the texts we now know: I am content to do so). Moses' name wasn't applied to the Pentateuch until long after the exile...as in, more than a millennium after the latest events which it describes! True, Moses is the one whose name has been traditionally attached ever since - but why do we need to "believe" in Mosaic authorship as a cornerstone of faith?
Jesus also condones slavery and he did not denounce the crimes of rape or paedophilia (Matthew 10:24, Matthew 24:46, Luke 17:7). Not only that, Jesus taught that if you call somebody a ‘fool’, you are in danger of going to hell (Matthew 5:22). Then he turns around and calls several people fools (Matthew 23:17, Luke 24:26). Not only that, the Bible tells us that Jesus explicitly upheld the ghastly Mosaic Law that requires children to be killed if they became unruly (Matthew 15:3-4, Matthew 5:17-18, Deuteronomy 21:18-21).
there are clear historical inaccuracies in the New Testament. One such example is that of Acts 5, where Luke writes of the Pharisee Gamaliel's speech (vv. 34-39). This speech would have taken place around AD 35-40, yet it refers to Theudas' revolt of AD 46-47 as a past event. Furthermore, Gamaliel is made to say that "Judas the Galilean" raised a revolt which followed that of Theudas - but Judas' revolt was in AD 6 or 7! We know these dates from Josephus, most notably, as well as from other records.
In addition, what are we to do with the wide variation of chronologies in the Gospels, different placements of pericopes in the timeline of Jesus' ministry (i.e the healing of the paralytic in Mark 2), and the substantial disagreement of John with the other three, in terms of historical outline?
A third question concerns authorship - mainly, the authorship of the Gospels and of the Pentateuch. Both sets are anonymous, textually - furthermore, the earliest date we even have for a name being applied to the gospels is in the very late first century, with quotations by Papias (transcribed by Irenaeus), and that only to Mark and Matthew (if we are to understand him to refer to the texts we now know: I am content to do so). Moses' name wasn't applied to the Pentateuch until long after the exile...as in, more than a millennium after the latest events which it describes! True, Moses is the one whose name has been traditionally attached ever since - but why do we need to "believe" in Mosaic authorship as a cornerstone of faith?
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