(BIBLICAL) HOLY INCEST

The Biblical analysis of the announcement of Jesus's  birth, brings up a serious matter, which needs an explanation...

The birth of Christ is found in only two gospels in the New Testament, they are  Matthew & Luke. First and foremost the two accounts of Jesus's  annunciation contradicts each other, however that's not what I want to discuss on this paper. There is a much more serious matter that Christians need to deal with. I want to jump to the Gospel of Matthew and Luke,  focusing on the verses, which speaks how Mary was CONCEIVED let's read them:

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The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God.

(Luke 1:35)

So what does that means, let's ask Matthew :

This is how the birth of Jesus the Messiah came about: His mother Mary was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be pregnant through the Holy Spirit. (Matthew 1:18)

From the above passages we can clearly read, that the Most High Overshadowed her (Mary), and she became pregnant through the Holy Spirit. !!!

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HERE'S THE PROBLEM 

Christians say Yahweh is God, Jesus is God, and the Holy Spirit is God. when we question them on this absurdity, the explanation they give u is, there is three person in one God, i.e God has three parts. so Jesus is God in flesh, and the Holy Spirit is part of God, there are not three God's but one.

For arguments sake if one even agrees that, Jesus is God and the Holy Spirit is also God.Then this would indicate that Jesus being God, impregnated Mary. if we take both Luke and Matthews account, and smash the together then it becomes pretty clear that,  Jesus who after all is God and part of the Holy Spirit made Mary pregnant who's suppose to be his mother.

as bad as it may sound, either Christians have would have to accept this problematic doctrine, or reject the Trinity as a whole separating each beings.   

Take notice Luke and Matthew tells us god over shadowed Mary and she was found conceived by the Holy Spirit.

Sound like HOLY INCEST BEHAVIOUR ! See how sick these people have become. Let's see how they answer this dilemma,  without turning to insults.

In short if Jesus is God and Mary was overshadowed and conceived by God, then doesn't this mean Jesus of the Bible committed Incest.  He made his mother get pregnant by him in order for him to be born. how absurd!

here's another problem Christian face.According to  Christians the holy ghost impregnated Mary of the bible, which in itself is an utter lie. Having saying that, the new testament is explicit that Mary was impregnated by the holy ghost.

This is how the birth of Jesus the Messiah came about: His mother Mary was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be pregnant through the Holy Spirit. (Matthew 1:18)

Now if this is the case, then according to the Torah both Mary and the holy ghost were unclean even after they had a bath. The question is did the holy ghost take a bath after such making her conceive releasing emission? Where's the evidence if he did. Christian also believe in trinity, three in one does that mean god was impure?

When a man has sexual relations with a woman and there is an emission of semen, both of them must bathe with water, and they will be unclean till evening. (Leviticus 15:18)

Talmud tells us

Both of] these must immerse in water: It is the Divine King’s decree that the woman becomes defiled through cohabitation, and the reason is not that she came into contact with semen, for this constitutes contact with hidden parts of the body [which does not defile]. — [Niddah 41b]

Shame on Christians...

God of the Bible has a consort?

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. John 3:16

Beget/begotten

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Dictionary definition for Beget

(especially of a man) bring (a child) into existence by the process of reproduction.

"they hoped that the King might beget an heir by his new queen"

Dictionary definition for Begotten

past participle of beget.

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From both definition we can conclude "Beget"  means a man having a child through the process of reproduction. I.e. sexual intercourse with a female gender. "Begotten" is the past participle of beget. Leading us back to the initial stages of how this man had the child.

The question is, how does this word fit with the attributes of God? If God had a Begotten son as the Bible claims John 3:16, then the God of the Bible would have had sexual intercourse with a female. There is no way he could Beget a son without a female, thus God of the Bible, either has a consort i.e. spouse, or a random female has his child through sexual intercourse?

Disgusting as it may sound, the reality behind this evil saying can he found in the New Testament itself.

The birth of Jesus Christ came about this way: After his mother Mary had been engaged to Joseph, it was discovered before they came together that she was pregnant from the Holy Spirit. (Matthew 1:18)

As you can read Mary of the bible, was made "PREGNANT" through the Holy Spirit. As we know Christians believe the Holy Spirit to be part of the triune Godhead. Thus God made Mary of the Bible pregnant.  Can Christians tell us how does God have a begotten son by himself without a wife, since the definition of Beget means having a child with a female?

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"I saw as the colour of amber, as the appearance of fire round about within it, from the appearance of his loins even upward, and from the appearance of his loins even downward"(Ezekiel 1:27) look up מָתְנַיִם