(Goo-ney) Wife/bride

Interesting, unlike a normal child, Jesus of the bible never called Mary mother, rather referred to her with the title "woman". Such disrespect towards ones own mother is despicable and uncalled for.  The Old Testament is clear for such abomination towards parents

"Honor your father and your mother, so that you may live long in the land the LORD your God is giving you. (Exodus 20:12)

Cursed is he who dishonors his father or mother.' And let all the people say, 'Amen!' (Deuteronomy 27:16)

"'Each of you must respect your mother and father, and you must observe my Sabbaths. I am the LORD your God. (Leviticus 19:3)

Interestingly, Jesus of the bible neither respected his mother or observed the sabbath laws.  Here’s the interesting part. Jesus called his mother "woman" now the greek word used is γυνή

(goo-nay'). The word goo-nay normally refers to "wife or bride"

Strong's Exhaustive Concordance

wife, woman.

Probably from the base of ginomai; a woman; specially, a wife -- wife, woman.

"It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.' (Matthew 5:31)

The word used for "wife" is γυνή (goo-nay').

When Joseph woke up, he did what the angel of the Lord had commanded him and took Mary home as his wife. (Matthew 1:24)

Joseph took Mary as his "wife" γυνή (goo-nay').

Let's now go to the accounts of Matthew and Luke narratives prior to the nativity by just focusing on the specific verses which speak how Mary was CONCEIVED 

The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God. (Luke 1:35)

So what does that means, let's ask Matthew:

This is how the birth of Jesus the Messiah came about: His mother Mary was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be pregnant through the Holy Spirit. (Matthew 1:18)

From the above passages we can clearly read, that the Most High Overshadowed her (Mary), and she became pregnant through the Holy Spirit.

HERE'S THE PROBLEM 

Christians say Yahweh is God, Jesus is God, and the Holy Spirit is God. when we question them on this absurdity, the explanation they give u is, there is three person in one God, i.e. God has three parts. so Jesus is God in flesh, and the Holy Spirit is part of God, there are not three God's but one.

For arguments sake if one even agrees that, Jesus is God and the Holy Spirit is also God, then this would indicate that Jesus being God, impregnated Mary. if we take both Luke and Matthews account, and smash them together then it becomes clearer that Jesus who after all is God and part of the Holy Spirit made Mary pregnant.

as bad as it may sound, either Christians have would have to accept this problematic narrative or reject the trinity as a whole separating each being. Take notice Luke and Matthew tells us god over shadowed Mary and she was found conceived by the Holy Spirit.

Sound like HOLY INCEST BEHAVIOUR! See how sick these people have become. Let's see how they answer this dilemma, without turning to insults.

In short if Jesus is God and Mary was overshadowed and conceived by God, then doesn't this mean Jesus of the bible committed incest.  He made his mother get pregnant by him for him to be born. how absurd!

It would be perfectly normal to call Mary "women" γυνή (goo-nay'), wife, bride as he impregnated her, what a man would do to his wife

Rather than going through such absurdities by Christians, wouldn't it be more feasible that Jesus was referring to Mary Magdalene and not Mary his mother. Think about it, Mary Magdalene would follow him as a disciple. Mary Magdalene loved him to the point he went to the "tomb" during darkness alone to take him, as found in the gospel of John.

Calling Mary Magdalene woman γυνή (goo-nay') makes more sense than anyone else. Note, the New Testament nowhere makes mention that Jesus was not married, nor betrothed at any time. Bear in mind 30 years except for 2 day from the time of his birth and couple of days in the temple at the age of 12 are missing. Christians have no information on where and what Jesus was doing for those missing 30 years of his life. Christians speculate, Jesus was the son of a carpenter so that’s what he was doing, but this does not answer for 30 years of missing time. Jesus could have been married and divorced there is no way to prove he wasn't.

We also know from the apocrypha gospels such as the gospel of Thomas and

“The companion of the Savior is Mary Magdalene. But Christ loved her more than all the disciples and used to kiss her often on her mouth" (gospel of Philip)

Notice this writing; written roughly 150AD stating Mary was loved and kissed by Jesus. Now Christians dismiss such writing from the ancient text purely because they don't correlate with the four canonised gospels which they have however, this does not disprove the historical writings found elsewhere. Luke himself wrote, "Many people have set out to write accounts about the events that have been fulfilled among us" Luke 1:1.If have written their accounts of Jesus's life why is Luke claiming to be correct? How can you prove those other writers were incorrect correct? How can you prove those other writers were incorrect correct? This would also question the other three gospels. If Luke as correct then by standards Mark, Matthew and John where incorrect.

Moving to the New Testament.

Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not (SEXUALLY); for I am not yet ascended to my Father:..... (John 20:17)

the Greek word used is " ἅπτου,haptou", meaning :(of carnal intercourse with a women or cohabitation).

As we can read from the above verse Mary Magdalene wanted to Touch him, let's focus on the word Touch in Greek which is (HAPTOMAI). Now this may not seem troubling to an average Christian who read the bible in English or in Greek. However, the problem starts when you unlock the Greek word (HAPTOMAI).

Let's break this down so we get a clear view of all this. It seems like after seeing Jesus Mary Magdalene was so excited he went to touch him (HAPTOMAI) and Jesus told her not to touch him (HAPTOMAI)

The word (HAPTOMAI) doesn't just mean touch The fact is, the Greek word haptomai has a broad range of meanings and could imply such connotation -- it means "to touch," "to lay hold on," "to embrace"; "to cling to," "to hurt," etc., (Greek-English Lexicon to the New Testament, by Dawson and Taylor), but not necessarilry so. The word "haptomai" only takes on a "sexual"implication when used in a sexual context, like is the case in 1 Cor 7:1.

Thus, Mary Magdalene was the woman Jesus was married to and he referred to her as γυνή (goo-nay'). So

Here’s another controversy Christians must juggle with. Those Christians who bring up "cross narrative" saying Jesus spoke to his mother and called her woman and called John his disciple "son" to look after her.

Notice the wordings, we'll established γυνή (goo-nay') means wife and his would and could only refer to Mary Magdalene and how the authors confused themselves with the many Mary's, such gross mistakes of identities also falls at this very narrative. Jesus was speaking to Mary Magdalene calling her woman γυνή (goo-nay') and the "disciple" whom he loved would be his son. Note this loved disciple has no name?

Christians can play hermeneutics or in our case gymnastics with their bible text, but one thing for sure they can't prove from their very "inspired" bible if Jesus of the New Testament was married.

Let the bible speak.