God gets blessed?

Yahweh gets blessed !

And David said to all the congregation, Now bless the LORD your God. And all the congregation blessed the LORD God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshipped the LORD, and the king. (1 chronicles 29:20)

Also the Arabic says احْمَدُوا Ahmed (praise) 

It's private and yours !

Yahweh wants your penis to say thanks to him!

If his loins have not blessed me, and if he were not warmed with the fleece of my sheep; (job 31:20)

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Loins have not blessed him? I.e the private parts of a man this is no doubt since we have several other references where loin is the private part of a man for example :

All the souls that came with Jacob into Egypt, which came out of his loins, besides Jacob's sons' wives, all the souls were threescore and six; (Genesis 46:26)

We can read from the above text all those souls who came with Jacob came out of his LOINS!

Commentary  

Barnes' Notes on the Bible

If his loins have not blessed me - This is a personification by which the part of the body that had been clothed by the benevolence of Job, is supposed to speak and render him thanks.

 

Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible

If his loins have not blessed me,.... Which were girded and covered with garments he gave him; which, as often as he put on and girded his loins with, put him in mind of his generous benefactor, and this put him upon sending up an ejaculatory wish to heaven, that all happiness and blessedness might attend him, who had so comfortably clothed him; 

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Let's get a little deeper with the word loins the Arabic word for loins found in the bible is Sulb صُلْبِهِ which no doubt means the male private... So the question is is Yahweh expecting the Penis Male private part Loins for praise him?

Do you really want a god like Yahweh ask yourself!

It's embarrassing quick change it !

It's to embarrassing quickly change it (Torah corruption)

The men turned away and went toward Sodom, but Abraham remained standing before the LORD. (Genesis 18:22)

Rabbi confirm alteration made on the story of Abraham, this shows how easy it was for scribes to alter and change texts easily,  Notice commentators are ok with this alteration, also shockingly we are told there are 18 accounts of scribal changes!!! 

The story goes like this  when Abraham was visited by the three angels and after they left the Lord Yahweh was standing in front of Abraham, this was to embarrassing as how can God stand in front of Abraham it should be vice versa, so as you guessed it they changed the text... Let's read this evidence from commentary :

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Commentary rashis 

 and Abraham was still standing, etc.: But is it not so that he did not go to stand before Him, but the Holy One, blessed be He, came to him and said to him (above verse 20): “Because the cry of Sodom and Gomorrah has become great, etc.,” and it should have been written here: “and the Lord was still standing beside Abraham?” But this is a scribal emendation (Gen. Rabbah 49:7).

The Tikkun Soferim

The peshat reading suggested above goes further than just clearing up some awkwardness in the narrative; it also confirms an ancient tradition regarding the reading of the text (Gen. Rab. 49:7):

“[The angels] went to Sodom and Abraham remained standing before the Lord” – Rabbi Simon says: “This is a correction of the scribes (tikkun soferim), for the presence of God was waiting for Abraham.”[10]

According to Rabbi Simon’s statment, also cited by Rashi (ad loc.), verse 22 originally read “the Lord remained standing before Abraham.”

Rabbi Simon’s statement is part of a tradition about “scribal corrections” that exist in the biblical text. According to this tradition, there are up to eighteen biblical verses that underwent scribal correction (tikunay soferim).  These verses were “corrected” to remove any possible anthropomorphisms or disrespect towards God.[11] The potential disrespect in the “uncorrected” reading of verse 22 is that it appears that God is subservient to Abraham; therefore, our source tells us that the verse was modified by the scribes to read as it does now: Abraham remained standing before the Lord.

In the context of the peshat reading, the “uncorrected” verse makes perfect sense. God was addressed directly in verse 3 and resumes His speech in verses 13-14.  The 2 angels head off to Sodom in verse 16.  In verses 17-22 God contemplates and then begins discussing plans to destroy Sodom and Gomorrah with Abraham, while God was still standing in Abraham’s presence.  The “uncorrected” statement of God left standing before Abraham probably highlighted the solemnity of what was to follow (Abraham’s petition to save Sodom; Gen. 18:23-33.) As such, it no longer seems to be merely a repetition of verse 16. In addition, the “uncorrected” text continues with the notion of God’s presence remaining before Abraham  found throughout the narrative.

Conclusion

The reason the peshat reading was overlooked for the traditional reading seems clear – a desire to avoid anthropomorphic imagery about God which would be considered problematic by later authorities. Nevertheless, a literary analysis focused on peshat offers a straightforward way to read a familiar narrative and sheds new light on an ancient tradition regarding the history of the text.

  Ten Questions with a (Recreational)

Bible Scholar – Dr. Ben Zion Katz  

[10]  “וילכו סדומה ואברהם עודנו עומד לפני ה'” –  א”ר סימון תיקון סופרים הוא זה שהשכינה היתה ממתנת לאברהם.

[11] For a full discussion, see my A Journey Through Torah, Urim, 2012, pp. 46-54 and p. 66, note 10 and references therein.

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What a shame truly this is a blow on those who believe the bible is free from corruption again one has to go back to Jeremiah 

How can you say we are wise and have the Torah when the scribes have tampered with it (Jeremiah 8:8)

Were they all Angels?

Were they really Angels?

When we read the original Greek text we find that John the Baptist and he's disciples as well as the disciples of Jesus were referred as Angels..

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John the Baptist is referred an angel?

This is the one about whom it is written: "'I will send my messenger (Angel) (ἀγγελῶν angelōn ) ahead of you, who will prepare your way before you.' (Matthew 11:10)

as it is written in Isaiah the prophet: "I will send my messenger (Angel) (ἀγγελῶν angelōn) head of you, who will prepare your way" (Mark 1:2)

John the Baptists disciples are referred  as angels?

 After John's messengers (Angels) (ἀγγελῶν angelōn ) left, Jesus began to speak to the crowd about John: "What did you go out into the wilderness to see? A reed swayed by the wind? (Luke 7:24)

Jesus's disciples were referred as angels?

And he sent messengers (Angels) (ἀγγελῶν angelōn )on ahead, who went into a Samaritan village to get things ready for him; (Luke 9:52)

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Does it mean they were all angels? NOOO!! Same way when Jesus was called Lord doesn't make him divine as lord was a title many had before..

Prophet Abraham:

"Therefore Sarah laughed within herself, saying, After I am waxed old shall I have pleasure, my lord (Abraham) being old also?" (Genesis 18:12)

Esau:

"And he commanded them, saying, Thus shall ye speak unto my lord Esau; Thy servant Jacob saith thus, I have sojourned with Laban, and stayed there until now:"

(Genesis 32:4)

Joseph:

"And we said unto my lord, We have a father, an old man, and a child of his old age, a little one; and his brother is dead, and he alone is left of his mother, and his father loveth him." (Genesis 44:20)

David:

"And fell at his feet, and said, Upon me, my lord, [upon] me [let this] iniquity [be]: and let thine handmaid, I pray thee, speak in thine audience, and hear the words of thine handmaid." (1 Samuel 25:24)

...etc.

DONT LET THESE DECEPTIVE CHRISTIANS FOOL YOU!!

Does God have restrictions?

Literal or Metaphorical?

 

 Our God is in heaven; he does whatever pleases him. (Psalm 115:3)

 

The LORD does whatever pleases him, in the heavens and on the earth, in the seas and all their depths. (Psalm 135:6)

 

From the above statements it seems pretty clear God has power over all things, and does what he pleases. however the question is, should one take those statement as literal or metaphoric? you may wonder why would someone take this as metaphoric statement rather than literal, after all God is all powerful. Well, the simple answer is, if the God of the Bible is so powerful and does whatever he wants, then why couldn't he abolish the original sin rather than making an innocent man suffer for a sin which has nothing to do with him? Does that even make sense. Now many Christians would say no! the PROPHERCY had to be fulfilled and the sinless had to suffer for all of us. Well then, that nullifies the above statement that God does whatever he wants, it's clear God of the Bible was unable to clear Adams sins when it happened.  God has restrictions and was not able to forgive the original sin without making someone else suffer.

 

 Ask any Christian was God able to forgive Adam and Eve's sins without a blood sacrifice and watch how they stutter to answer you back. It's a simple question which deserves a yes or no.  IF THE GOD OF THE BIBLE WAS UNABLE TO FORGIVE A MISTAKE MADE BY ADAM, HOW COULD HE DO WHAT HE WANTS?  

Hows that even Possible

Bible lost the plot !

How tall was Goliath ?? (bible loses the plot) !

And there came out from the camp of the Philistines a champion named Goliath of Gath, whose height was six cubits and a span. (1 Samuel 17:4 Masoretic)

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The Above verse from the masoretic text tells us Goliath was six cubits and a span? In other words Goliath was about nine feet, six inches. However the Septuagint  completely contradicts the Masoretic let's read below:

And there went forth a mighty man out of the army of the Philistines, Goliath, by name, out of Geth, his height was four cubits and a span. (1 Samuel 17:4 Septuagint )

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So now we have a big problem the Septuagint tells us Goliath was four cubits and a span that's about six feet, six inches. And what's worse the Jewish historian Josephus describes Goliath as, “a man of vast bulk, for he was of four cubits and a span in tallness ???

We have another problem to deal with if we agree the Septuagint is correct and Goliath was 6 feet six inches tall how does one accept a six footer wearing a coat that weighs 125 pounds?

He wore a bronze helmet, and his bronze coat of mail weighed 125 pounds.

(1 Samuel 17:5)

In short  was Goliath 9 foot+ according to the Masoretic or was he 6 foot+ according to the Septuagint or just under 6 feet according to Josephus... You decide!!

Another blow SHAME SHAME!!


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How tall was Goliath?

A champion named Goliath, who was from Gath, came out of the Philistine camp. His height was six cubits and a span “9 feet, 6 inches”. (1 Samuel 17:4 Masoretic text)

Interestingly a damaged Dead Sea scroll can be read as saying ’’four cubits and a span,‘’ a mere six and a half feet (2 meters), same as what the Septuagint says

And there went forth a mighty man out of the army of the Philistines, Goliath, by name, out of Geth, his height was four cubits and a span. (1 Samuel 17:4 Septuagint text)

Josephus also tell us he was four cubits tall “Now there came down a man out of the camp of the Philistines, whose name was Goliath, of the city of Gath; a man of vast bulk, for he was of four⁸ cubits and a span in tallness” (Antiquities of the Jews — Book VI chapter 9)

We know the Masoretic text dates from around the 9^th century, whereas the Septuagint dates roughly 200 BCE. The question is which text is correct? If you say the Septuagint is correct since it pre-dates the time of Jesus and most notably copied from the Hebrew manuscripts which we no longer have in our possession, then the Masoretic must be dismissed. Bear in mind the DSS also agrees with the Septuagint alongside Josephus. This goes to show alterations have been made by the scribes. Think about it, if the scribes felt ok change the height of Goliath what else have they changed?

Christians boast the Dead Sea scroll proves the Bible has not been corrupted, yet the Masoretic Bible is a perfect example to prove them wrong

There is no grammatical error

Ok let's put your vain desires to rest...

So your saying there's a grammatical error..?? Right firstly we know you don't know Arabic your using a copy and paste that's fine I'll be gentle with you... I'll prove to you singular meaning is grammatically correct rather then dual.. Ok

First question ayuba what does rasool mean? Any idea it's ok if you don't know, as I'm happy to tell you:

Imam Fakhruddeen Raazi has explained the differences between a Rasool (prophet) and a Nabi (messenger). A Rasool is one who has performed miracles and has received a new Divine book. He establishes a new code of law (Shar'iah) and abrogates the previous code of law and book. He has also visibly seen the angel that comes with the Divine message, and the Rasool is commanded to invite the people towards the The deen  A Nabi is one who is not given a new book, but rather establishes the book which was revealed to the Rasool before him. He does not abrogate the book and the code of law which was in vogue before him. He sees the angel in a dream or the Rasool of the time informs him that he has been chosen as a Nabi. (Tafseer Raazi V1 p3212, Mafaateehul Ghayb V23 p43) ------------ So now that's we've established that Rasool means a Prophet who Is given a Divine Book from Allah Swt and Nabi means a Messenger who is not given a Book rather using the book given to the Rasool before him also preaching the same Message Worship One God. Also bear in mind a Rasool is also a Nabi but a Nabi who is not given a Divine book cannot be a Rasool The Surah That you keep bragging about which you copied from scam shamoun only exposes you more.. Let's find out how Moses Pbuh was a Rasool this makes him a Nabi, however Harun Pbuh was a Nabi not a Rasool which means there was only one  only Rasool. The ayat was talking about a Single Rasool not dual as Harun Pbuh was not a Rasool. Had the ayat said Rasool in plural form then you could of said grammatical error but in this case the Quran has no Grammatical error and the wording is perfect.. Consider the context in which this verse comes as Allah (swt) mentions in the preceding verses: He (Mūsā) said, “My Lord, I fear that they will reject me. My heart gets straitened, and my tongue is not fluent; so send for Hārūn. Moreover, they have (leveled) a charge of offense against me, and I fear they will kill me;”He (Allah) said, “Never! (They will not be able to kill you.) So go, both of you, with Our signs. We are with you, listening (to the conversation you will have with him. [26:12-15] We see that Prophet Musa (as) was reticent in going to Pharaoh and asked Allah (swt) to send Harun (as) with him. So it was a time of worry, concern, and anxiety as the weight of delivering the message was heavy for Musa. So the eloquence of the Qur’an displays to us that in that state of trial and test Allah (swt) guaranteed to Musa (as) that He was close to make firm the heart of Musa (as) and give him reassurance. Allah (swt) then commands him in this ayat (26:16) “So go, both of you, to Pharaoh and say, ‘Indeed We are a messenger of the Lord of all the worlds”. The usage of ‘rasul’ in the singular indicates strength in this context more so than the dual. Allah (swt) also honors Musa and Harun (as) in using the genitive construction (mudaf wa mudaf ilayhi). Another interpretation is given for the singular usage: Imam al-Baydawi as well as other scholars of tafsir mention a number of benefits of this usage: 1. The singular usage emphasizes the strength of the brotherhood bond of Musa and Harun (as). 2. It signifies the unity and strength between the messenger and the message (ie risalah and 3.  It emphasizes that both Musa and Harun are messengers sent to Pharaoh. Both having God-given authority. 4. The erudite scholar Ibn Ashur mentions, “[singularizing ‘rasul’] points to both Musa and Harun being commanded with delivering the message even if individually” [Tahrir wa Tanweer]. Here the focus being the certainty of the message reaching. 5. The great scholar of tafsir al-Baqa`i says, “[The usage of the singular] points to their unity and oneness in opposition and agreement as if they were one person [nafsa wahida].” As you can see the singular form is so powerful grammatically it destroys the whole error theory made up by you devil companions... Shame on you all

Will you Accept or reject ?

Will Christians accept or reject the very Jesus they are waiting for ?

For many will come in my name, claiming, 'I am the Messiah,' and will deceive many. (Matthew 24:5)

For false messiahs and false prophets will appear and perform great signs and wonders to deceive, if possible, even the elect. (Matthew 24:24)

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So the question is how would a Christians recognise the true Jesus? What explicit description do they have to recognise the true Messiah 

One wonders where to starts from and what better place than the book of Revelations. Let's find out what clues it  gives to recognise the true Jesus. We will also cite from the book of Daniel and and Josephus Bin Matthias 

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And in the midst of the lampstands one like a son of man, clothed with a long robe and with a golden sash around his chest. The hairs of his head were white, like white wool, like snow. His eyes were like a flame of fire,(Revelation 1:13-14)

His feet were like burnished bronze, refined in a furnace, and his voice was like the roar of many waters.(Revelation 1:15)

I saw heaven standing open and there before me was a white horse, whose rider is called Faithful and True. With justice he judges and wages war.

(Revelations 19:11)

His eyes are a flame of fire, and on His head are many diadems; and He has a name written on Him which no one knows except Himself. He is clothed with a robe dipped in blood, and His name is called The Word of God.

(Revelations 19:12-13)

Coming out of his mouth is a sharp sword with which to strike down the nations. "He will rule them with an iron scepter." He treads the winepress of the fury of the wrath of God Almighty.

(Revelations 19:15)

On his robe and on his thigh he has this name written: king of kings and lord of lords. (Revelations 19:16)

“As I looked, thrones were placed, and the Ancient of Days took his seat; his clothing was white as snow, and the hair of his head like pure wool; his throne was fiery flames; its wheels were burning fire.(Daniel 7:9)

I lifted up my eyes and looked, and behold, a man clothed in linen, with a belt of fine gold from Uphaz around his waist. His body was like beryl, his face like the appearance of lightning, his eyes like flaming torches, his arms and legs like the gleam of burnished bronze, and the sound of his words like the sound of a multitude. (Daniel 10:5-6)

How about his height?

From a variety of sources we know that Jesus was small in stature; this in a time when the average male measured 5’1” and weighed 110 pounds.

The first century historian Josephus reports him being approximately 3 cubits tall (4 feet 6 inches).

The Gospel of Luke (19:3) describes Zaccheus’ attempt to see Jesus while he preached in a crowd: “And he sought to see Jesus who he was; and he could not for the crowd, because he was low of stature.” Luke may be referring to Zaccheus rather than Jesus, but the idea that Jesus was slight can be seen again in the Acts of John v. 90: “…I was afraid and cried out, and he, turning about, appeared as a man of small stature…”

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My comment:

This is a joke right? Can you believe that's the biblical description of Jesus a Messiah ? 

His face like lightening?

His Eyes like flames of fire?

Hair on his head like white wool?

Sword coming out of his mouth?

Kings of kings written on his thigh?

His feet like burnished bronze?

His voice like a roar of many waters?

He will be a horse rider not donkey ?

His robe dripping in blood?

Short like a dwarf ( with all due respect to dwarfs )

ONE WONDERS IF CHRISTIANS  WOULD FOLLOW OR RUN AWAY FROM SUCH A FIGURE WHO LOOKS LIKE THAT!!! 

   

Corruption as predicted!!

Corruption as Predicted !!!!

Moses predicts In Deuteronomy that the Jews will turn to corrupt, Yahweh testifies in Jeremiah that the Torah has been corrupted by the Scribes. 

We often get Christians refuting the notion the Torah is corrupt and blame Muslims for making up such stories? But what if he have proof from the bible I.e the Torah itself that's it's been corrupted then what? Well Moses a great Prophet in Judaism tells us in the very same bible that the Jews will eventually turn to corruption let's read below :

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For I know your rebellion and your stubbornness; behold, while I am still alive with you today, you have been rebellious against the LORD; how much more, then, after my death?

Assemble before me all the elders of your tribes and all your officials, so that I can speak these words in their hearing and call the heavens and the earth to testify against them

For I know that after my death you are sure to become utterly corrupt and to turn from the way I have commanded you. In days to come, disaster will fall on you because you will do evil in the sight of the LORD and arouse his anger by what your hands have made (Deuteronomy 31:27-29)

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Notice how Moses knew the attitudes of these rebellious people and predicted they will turn to corruption so he asked the leaders to place the Torah in the ark of Covenent for it will always be safe there, but even that has been gone the ark of the covenant it missing which means the original Torah is no longer with us.. So how does one verify what the Torah said during the time of Moses? The Jews are not trust worthy accordion to Moses,  even Yahweh  confess the Torah has been changed :

How can you say we are wise and have the Torah with us when the pen of the false scribes have changed it! (Jeremiah 8:8)

(A sample to this can be traced through different versions of Torah e.g )

And Nahor lived nine and seventy years, and begat Terah:

(Genesis 11:24 Samaritan Torah)

And Nahor lived nine and twenty years, and begat Terah:

(Genesis 11:24 Masoretic Torah)

And Nachor lived a hundred and seventy-nine years, and begot Tharrha. 

(Genesis 11:24 Septuagint Torah)

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Now if Christians believe all scriptures are God breathed and inspired then was Moses speaking the truth about Jews turning to Corruption! How about the Torah being distorted by false scribes.. I'll leave that to you 

Missing tablets

The missing tablets !!!!!!

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We read in exodus 32:15-16 moses received the two tablets which had writings on both side?

how big were these tablets that Moses had?? Let's find out from Jewish sources!!

Tradition tells us that they were thick square blocks of stone, six handbreadths tall, six handbreadths wide, and three handbreadths deep. In modern measurements, that is about 18″ × 18″ × 9″. The sages of the Talmud demonstrate how tablets of this size—along with a few other relics—fit neatly into the Ark of the Covenant that Moses made as described in Exodus. Talmud, Bava Batra 14a.

From the above explanations which comes from rashis we are told the two tablets were very small that Moses carried with one hand exodus 32:15

 

Now coming to exodus 34:27 where god said write these words down, how does that answer the question where God said this bible you possess is a revelation from me.??? Was the entire Pentateuch written on two small tablets no bigger then a phone book??? 

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Where are those tablets now?? The answer is missing they are missing we don't have them anymore... Infact Moses predicted after him the Jews will turn to corruption so he ordered the tablets be kept in the ark of the covenant, however this is missing !  

Moses commanded the Levites who carried the ark of the covenant of the LORD,

"Take this Book of the Law and place it beside the ark of the covenant of the LORD your God. There it will remain as a witness against you.

(Deuteronomy 31:25-26)