You know the commandments: 'You shall not murder, you shall not commit adultery, you shall not steal, you shall not give false testimony, you shall not defraud, honor your father and mother.'" (Mark 10:19)
"you shall not defraud" is not found in the law of commandments. So where did Jesus get such a commandment from? how could Jesus add to the law when the Torah strictly forbids any kind of addition to it's law? could it be the law was actually given to Moses, but throughout time due to scribal alterations that saying washed away. or did Jesus quote from a Rabbi from his time, saying that the Talmud makes mention of this exact saying which Jesus added the law.
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Resh Lakish said: Meshikah is explicitly provided for by Biblical law. What is Resh Lakish's reason? — Scripture saith, And if thou sell aught unto thy neighbour, or acquire aught of thy neighbour's hand — i.e., a thing 'acquired' [by passing it] from hand to hand. But R. Johanan maintains, 'of [thy neighbour's] hand' is to exclude real estate from the law of fraud. And Resh Lakish? — If so, Scripture should have written, 'And if thou sell aught unto thy neighbour's hand, ye shall not defraud:' why state, 'or acquire aught'? This proves that its purpose is to teach the need of meshikah. And R. Johanan: how does he utilise 'or buy'? — He employs it. even as was taught: 'And if thou sell aught … ye shall not defraud:' from this I know the law only if the purchaser was defrauded. Whence do I know it if the vendor was cheated? From the phrase. 'or acquire aught…ye shall not defraud.' And Resh Lakish? — He learns both therefrom. (Talmud
SACRED OBJECTS-Scripture saith, One man shall not defraud his brother: his brother, but not hekdesh. (Talmud Baba Mezi'a 56b)
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